A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking raloxifene (Evista) to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following options DOES NOT indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
Redness of the lower left leg
Swelling of the lower left leg
Jaundice
Tenderness of the lower left leg
The Correct Answer is C
A. Redness and swelling of the leg may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a known risk with raloxifene.
B. Swelling of the lower leg is a common sign of DVT, which is a potential side effect of raloxifene.
C. Jaundice is not a typical adverse effect of raloxifene. However, if a client experiences jaundice, it could indicate a liver issue, and the medication should be reviewed.
D. Tenderness in the lower leg could also indicate DVT, another serious adverse effect related to raloxifene.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Morphine is contraindicated for clients with a history of biliary colic because it can cause spasm of the bile ducts, worsening the condition.
B. Acetaminophen is an effective pain reliever for mild to moderate pain but does not provide the same level of pain relief as morphine for severe pain.
C. Meperidine (Demerol) is a safer alternative for clients with biliary colic because it has less effect on the sphincter of Oddi, reducing the risk of spasm.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid toxicity, not for pain management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae is an early sign of acetaminophen toxicity. It indicates a potential bleeding disorder due to liver damage, which can occur from prolonged or high-dose use of acetaminophen.
B. Osteoporosis is not a symptom of acetaminophen toxicity.
C. Pneumonia is unrelated to acetaminophen toxicity and is more likely to occur due to infections.
D. Diaphoresis (sweating) is not a primary early symptom of acetaminophen toxicity, although it could occur in later stages of liver failure.
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