A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking raloxifene (Evista) to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following options DOES NOT indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
Redness of the lower left leg
Swelling of the lower left leg
Jaundice
Tenderness of the lower left leg
The Correct Answer is C
A. Redness and swelling of the leg may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a known risk with raloxifene.
B. Swelling of the lower leg is a common sign of DVT, which is a potential side effect of raloxifene.
C. Jaundice is not a typical adverse effect of raloxifene. However, if a client experiences jaundice, it could indicate a liver issue, and the medication should be reviewed.
D. Tenderness in the lower leg could also indicate DVT, another serious adverse effect related to raloxifene.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Coma is a common symptom of opioid toxicity, including toxicity from fentanyl.
B. Respiratory depression is a hallmark of opioid toxicity and can be life-threatening.
C. Dilated pupils are generally associated with stimulant overdose, not opioid toxicity. Opioid toxicity typically causes pinpoint pupils.
D. Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic sign of opioid toxicity and are present in the opioid toxicity triad.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Morphine is a full agonist on mu receptors and does not act on kappa receptors in the same way.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that blocks both mu and kappa receptors.
C. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that acts as an agonist on kappa receptors and an antagonist on mu receptors. It is used for pain management and has a lower risk of dependence compared to full opioid agonists.
D. Acetaminophen does not act on opioid receptors and is not classified as an opioid.
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