A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The Correct Answer is D
A. The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range: While monitoring liver function tests is essential for clients taking isoniazid and rifampin due to
potential hepatotoxicity, normal liver function test results do not necessarily indicate adherence to the medication regimen. Adherence is best assessed by the client's response to treatment, such as improvement in symptoms and resolution of the infection.
B. The client has a positive purified protein derivative test: A positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis but does not provide information about the client's adherence to the medication regimen for tuberculosis treatment. Adherence to treatment is determined by factors such as medication compliance and therapeutic response.
C. The client tests negative for HIV: The client's HIV status is not directly related to adherence to the tuberculosis medication regimen. While co-infection with HIV can impact the management of tuberculosis, testing negative for HIV does not confirm adherence to tuberculosis treatment.
D. The client has a negative sputum culture: A negative sputum culture indicates the absence of viable Mycobacterium tuberculosis organisms in the sputum sample and suggests effective
treatment and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring sputum culture conversion is a key indicator of treatment success in tuberculosis therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has a history of anaphylaxis following a bee sting: This finding is not directly related to the safety of taking alendronate for osteoporosis.
B. The client has a first-degree relative who has Paget's disease: While family history is
important in assessing the risk of osteoporosis, it is not a direct safety risk for taking alendronate.
C. The client is postmenopausal: Postmenopausal status is a common indication for the use of alendronate to prevent or treat osteoporosis. It is not a safety risk.
D. The client has immobility that restricts her to a supine position: Immobility, especially in a supine position, can increase the risk of esophageal irritation and reflux when taking alendronate. Therefore, this finding poses a safety risk for the client when taking this medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This statement is incorrect. While it’s essential not to exceed the recommended dose, the
maximum daily limit for nicotine gum is 24 pieces, not 40. Using more than the recommended amount can lead to adverse effects
B. This information is not accurate. Nicotine gum is typically used for a shorter duration. The
treatment plan varies, but it’s essential to follow the recommended dosing and gradually reduce usage over time. The goal is to quit smoking successfully, not to use the gum for 9 months
C. This advice is correct. Nicotine gum is not used like ordinary chewing gum. You should chew it a few times and then “park” it between your cheek and the space below your teeth. The nicotine is absorbed mostly in your mouth. Chewing it slowly over 30 minutes allows for
effective absorption and helps control withdrawal symptoms
D. Drinking water before chewing nicotine gum is not a necessary instruction for its use.
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