A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic via intermittent IV bolus for a client who has a continuous IV infusion.
Which of the following steps should the nurse take first?

Hang the antibiotic medication bag above the level of the primary infusion.

Wipe the connection port of the primary IV tubing with an antiseptic swab.

Check the IV site for signs of infiltration.

Connect the tubing of the medication bag to the primary tubing.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

Hanging the antibiotic medication bag above the level of the primary infusion is an important step in administering an antibiotic via intermittent IV bolus. However, it is not the first step. The medication bag is usually hung higher to allow the antibiotic to infuse by gravity once it’s connected.

Choice B rationale:

Wiping the connection port of the primary IV tubing with an antiseptic swab is a crucial step in preventing infection. However, this is typically done just before connecting the secondary line, not as the first step.

Choice C rationale:

Checking the IV site for signs of infiltration is indeed the first step. It’s important to ensure that the IV catheter is still properly placed in the vein and that there are no signs of infection or infiltration, which could cause complications.

Choice D rationale:

Connecting the tubing of the medication bag to the primary tubing is done after cleaning the port and before hanging the bag. It’s not the first step.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Increased temperature is not a direct indication of naloxone’s effectiveness. Naloxone works by reversing the effects of opioids, which do not typically include fever.

Choice B rationale:

While naloxone can cause an abrupt withdrawal in opioid-dependent individuals, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, it does not typically decrease blood pressure in opioid overdose cases.

Choice C rationale:

Naloxone works by reversing the life-threatening depression of the central nervous system and respiratory system caused by an opioid overdose. Therefore, an increased respiratory rate after administration would indicate that the medication is effective.

Choice D rationale:

Naloxone reverses the effects of opioids, including pain relief. Therefore, a report of decreased pain would not indicate that the medication is effective.

A. Hydrochlorothiazide. B. Antacid. C. Lovastatin. D. Acetaminophen.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication and does not interfere with the absorption of tetracycline.

Choice B rationale:

Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracycline, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, they should be taken 3 hours before or after taking tetracycline.

Choice C rationale:

Lovastatin is a lipid-lowering medication and does not interfere with the absorption of tetracycline.

Choice D rationale:

Acetaminophen is an analgesic and does not interfere with the absorption of tetracycline.

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A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic via intermittent IV bolus for a client who has a continuous IV infusion.Which of the following steps should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

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A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic via intermittent IV bolus for a client who has a continuous IV infusion.
Which of the following steps should the nurse take first?