A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum following a vaginal birth.
The client has saturated a perineal pad within 10 minutes.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Prepare to administer a prescribed oxytocic preparation.
Assess the client's blood pressure.
Assess the bladder for distention.
Massage the client's fundus.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Preparing to administer a prescribed oxytocic preparation is a possible intervention for postpartum hemorrhage, but the immediate first step should be to assess the uterus, the most common source of early postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure is important in evaluating the extent of blood loss, but it is not the initial action to take. Addressing the likely cause of the bleeding should precede further assessment of vital signs.
Choice C rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is important as a full bladder can displace the uterus and interfere with its contraction, potentially contributing to bleeding. However, directly addressing the uterine tone is the immediate first step.
Choice D rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action because uterine atony, a soft and non-contracted uterus, is the most frequent cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Stimulating the uterus to contract by massage helps to compress the blood vessels at the placental site and decrease bleeding. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. Symptoms can include unilateral abdominal pain, light to heavy vaginal bleeding, and a positive pregnancy test. An ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition requiring prompt medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Molar pregnancy, also known as gestational trophoblastic disease, is characterized by abnormal growth of trophoblasts, the cells that normally develop into the placenta. It can present with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding (ranging from spotting to heavy bleeding), pelvic pain or pressure, and a uterus that may be larger than expected for the gestational age. The absence of a fetal heartbeat and elevated hCG levels are also characteristic.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing ambulation is generally encouraged in the postpartum period to prevent complications like thrombophlebitis, but it does not address the potential cause of foul-smelling lochia. Foul odor is a key indicator of infection, and ambulation will not resolve an existing infection.
Choice B rationale
Increasing oral fluids is important for hydration in the postpartum period, but it will not directly address a foul-smelling odor in the lochia. While adequate hydration supports overall healing, it does not treat an infection. A foul odor strongly suggests a localized infectious process in the uterus.
Choice C rationale
Lochia that is red (rubra) is normal in the first few days postpartum. However, a foul-smelling odor is an abnormal finding and a significant indicator of a potential uterine infection, also known as endometritis or puerperal infection. Further assessment and intervention are required to identify and treat the infection.
Choice D rationale
Normal lochia progresses from rubra (red) to serosa (pinkish-brown) to alba (yellowish-white) over several weeks postpartum. Normal lochia should have a fleshy, not foul, odor. A foul smell is an abnormal finding that suggests an infectious process within the uterus and requires prompt attention.
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