A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
Insert an oral airway into the client’s mouth
Measure the duration of the seizure.
Lower the side rails of the bed when the seizure begins.
Restrain the client's arms and legs to prevent injury.
None
None
The Correct Answer is B
A. Attempting to force an object into the oral cavity during muscle contraction causes dental trauma or jaw fractures. It significantly increases the risk of aspiration if the object breaks or triggers a gag reflex. Modern clinical guidelines strictly prohibit the insertion of any device into the mouth during active convulsions. Airway patency is maintained by placing the client in a lateral position.
B. Tracking the exact duration of the ictal phase is a critical nursing responsibility for clinical assessment. This data determines the necessity for emergency benzodiazepines if the event lasts longer than 5 minutes. Precise timing helps differentiate between a self-limiting seizure and dangerous status epilepticus. The nurse must record the start and end times to guide medical intervention.
C. Lowering the side rails during a seizure increases the risk of the client falling from the height of the bed. Standard seizure precautions require that side rails remain raised and should be padded to prevent blunt force trauma. Ensuring the patient stays within the safe boundaries of the bed is a primary safety goal.
D. Physical restraints can cause severe musculoskeletal injuries such as fractures or dislocations during the forceful involuntary movements of the clonic phase. Restricting the extremities creates unnecessary resistance against powerful muscle contractions. The nurse should clear the immediate area of hard objects rather than holding the client down.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. "I can expect my contact lenses to turn red or orange.”
Rifampin causes red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including tears, sweat, urine, and saliva. This effect is harmless but can stain soft contact lenses permanently, so clients should be advised to use glasses instead.
B. “I should notify my provider if I start taking new over-the-counter or prescription medications.”
Rifampin is a potent enzyme inducer that can alter the metabolism of many drugs, including oral contraceptives and anticoagulants. The provider should be informed of any new medications to avoid potential drug interactions and ensure therapeutic effectiveness.
C. “I will need to have someone observe me when I take my medication.”
Directly observed therapy (DOT) is recommended to ensure adherence to tuberculosis treatment. A healthcare provider or designated individual supervises medication intake to improve compliance and reduce the risk of drug resistance.
D. “I will need to have a repeat Mantoux test in 4 weeks.”
A repeat Mantoux test is unnecessary for diagnosing active tuberculosis, as this condition is confirmed through sputum cultures and chest X-ray findings. Mantoux testing is primarily used for screening latent TB infections.
E. “I am no longer contagious.”
Clients with active tuberculosis remain contagious until they complete at least two weeks of effective multidrug therapy and show clinical improvement. Until then, infection control measures such as respiratory isolation should be followed.
F. “I will need to take my medications for a total of 6 weeks.”
The standard treatment for active tuberculosis lasts at least six months, typically involving a four-drug regimen for the first two months, followed by two drugs for the remaining four months. A six-week course is insufficient for eradication.
G. "I can continue my current alcohol intake."
Alcohol should be avoided due to the hepatotoxic effects of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Combining alcohol with these medications increases the risk of liver damage, requiring clients to abstain or limit intake.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Tell the client to leave the group if they cannot contribute.
This response is inappropriate as it does not support the client’s participation or create an open, supportive environment. Forcing the client to leave would alienate them and potentially discourage future participation. Group therapy should foster inclusiveness and understanding, not create pressure or exclusion.
B) Allow the client extra time to think of a response.
This is the most appropriate action. Some clients may need additional time to process their thoughts before speaking, especially in a group setting where they may feel anxious or hesitant. Giving the client space and time to formulate a response can encourage participation without forcing them. It allows them to engage at their own pace, promoting comfort and confidence in the group.
C) Appoint the client to lead the discussion.
While giving the client an active role might help them engage, appointing them to lead the discussion could cause undue stress or anxiety, particularly if they are already struggling to contribute. This could overwhelm the client and make them feel more isolated. Instead, a gradual approach to participation is more effective.
D) Ask other group members to limit the number of times they speak.
While this may seem like an effort to allow more time for the silent client, it may not be the best solution. Group therapy is meant to be interactive, and limiting others’ participation may make the group feel less collaborative. It is better to encourage the silent client to speak at their own pace rather than restricting the group’s natural flow of discussion.
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