A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing manifestations of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
Methadone
Salicylate
Benzodiazepines
Diphenhydramine
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason : Methadone is an opioid used primarily for opioid maintenance therapy and to relieve severe pain, not typically for alcohol withdrawal. It does not address the specific symptoms associated with alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens¹.
Choice B reason : Salicylates, such as aspirin, are not used to treat alcohol withdrawal. They can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in the gastrointestinal tract, which can be a concern in individuals with a history of heavy alcohol use¹.
Choice C reason : Benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide, are the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal. They help reduce the risk of seizures, ease withdrawal symptoms, and can prevent the progression to more severe forms of withdrawal such as delirium tremens¹².
Choice D reason : Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, but it is not a first-line medication for alcohol withdrawal. While it may provide some sedation, it does not prevent seizures or other serious complications of alcohol withdrawal¹.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Benzodiazepines are not typically used for the long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder due to the risk of dependence and because other medications, such as SSRIs, are more effective for long-term management⁵.
Choice B reason : Benzodiazepines are effective for the short-term management of panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action, which can quickly alleviate acute symptoms of anxiety and panic⁵⁹.
Choice C reason : Long-term treatment of agoraphobia generally involves psychotherapy and SSRIs or SNRIs rather than benzodiazepines, which can lead to dependence and are not recommended for long-term use⁵.
Choice D reason : Benzodiazepines are not the first-line treatment for depression and are generally not used for this purpose. Antidepressants and psychotherapy are the standard treatments for depression⁵.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Achieving a blood pressure of 120/80 is a general goal for overall cardiovascular health, but it is not specific to the management of heart failure. While controlling blood pressure is important in heart failure, the primary objective is to reduce the heart's workload¹.
Choice B reason : Reducing the workload on the heart is a key objective in managing heart failure. This can be achieved through medications that improve heart function, lifestyle changes, and sometimes surgical interventions. The goal is to improve the heart's efficiency and reduce symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue¹.
Choice C reason : Encouraging the client to walk briskly on a treadmill at 4 to 5 miles an hour may not be appropriate for all heart failure patients, especially without medical supervision. Exercise recommendations should be personalized based on the individual's condition and tolerance¹.
Choice D reason : While dietary modifications are part of heart failure management, completely eliminating all sodium and fat is not practical or recommended. Instead, a balanced diet with controlled sodium intake is advised to help manage fluid retention¹.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.