A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing manifestations of opiate withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescriber
Diphenhydramine
Methadone
Benzodiazepines
Naloxone
The Correct Answer is B
A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is not typically used to manage opiate withdrawal. It may help with certain symptoms like insomnia or mild anxiety but is not a primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is commonly used in the treatment of opioid withdrawal. It is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps manage withdrawal symptoms and cravings, providing a more controlled tapering process. Methadone is often used in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder.
C. Benzodiazepines are not typically used as the first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal. They may be considered in specific situations, such as when there is severe anxiety or agitation, but they are generally not the primary choice due to the risk of dependence.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used in the routine management of opioid withdrawal but rather in emergency situations where opioid overdose is suspected.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stating that the medication will prevent depression is not accurate. Risperidone primarily addresses symptoms of psychosis and does not specifically target depression.
B. Indicating that the medication will improve mood is not the primary purpose of risperidone. Its focus is on managing psychotic symptoms rather than directly impacting mood.
C. Mentioning that the medication will decrease anxiety is not the primary action of risperidone. While it might indirectly reduce anxiety associated with psychotic symptoms, it's not its primary function.
D. "This medication will clear your thinking."
Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication commonly used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. While it won't directly improve mood, decrease anxiety, or prevent depression, it aims to alleviate symptoms related to psychosis, allowing for clearer and more organized thinking by reducing hallucinations and delusions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Requesting an appointment to discuss depression is an indication that the client is seeking help, which is a positive step. It does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of suicide.
B. Stating that they are stopping their medication raises concerns about treatment compliance, but it does not provide a clear indication of suicidal intent. It is important to assess the reasons for discontinuing medication and address any concerns.
C. Sleeping 12 hours a day can be a symptom of depression, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of suicide. It is crucial to assess the client's overall mental health and functioning.
D. A client who is giving away their possessions.
Giving away possessions can be a warning sign of suicidal intent. This behavior may indicate that the individual is preparing for the possibility of not needing those belongings in the future. It is crucial for the nurse to assess and intervene promptly if a client is exhibiting signs of suicidality.
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