A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Lorazepam
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Clonazepam
The Correct Answer is A
A. Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line medication for treating status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action. It acts by enhancing the effect of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, helping to quickly stop continuous seizure activity.
B. Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is used for long-term seizure control, particularly in partial seizures, but it is not appropriate for emergency treatment of status epilepticus due to its slower onset of action and oral route of administration.
C. Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is also used for chronic seizure management, including generalized and partial seizures. However, it is not effective in acute seizure emergencies and is typically not administered intravenously.
D. Clonazepam. While clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used to manage seizures, it is generally used for maintenance therapy. It lacks the fast-acting IV formulation preferred in treating status epilepticus, unlike lorazepam.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Providing a needle exchange program is considered secondary prevention, as it reduces complications in those already using substances rather than preventing initial use.
B. Teaching fifth graders about the risks of substance use is primary prevention, because it aims to stop substance use before it begins.
C. Giving a list of outpatient support services to clients leaving inpatient treatment is tertiary prevention, since it helps prevent relapse in those already affected.
D. Educating pregnant clients who are already in a sober living community is also not primary prevention, because they have a history of substance use; this falls under secondary/tertiary prevention.
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