A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse administers butorphanol IV bolus for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider following this medication?

The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.

Here's the rationale for each choice:

Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.

Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.

Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.

Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale:

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.

Choice C rationale:

Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.

Choice D rationale:

Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.