A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel surgery and has an NG tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube might not be functioning properly?
Wall suction set to 60 mm Hg
Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow
Aspirate pH of 3
Abdominal rigidity
The Correct Answer is D
A. A wall suction setting of 60 mm Hg is within the expected range for low intermittent suction. This indicates the NG tube is likely functioning appropriately in terms of suction pressure.
B. Greenish-yellow drainage is an expected finding and reflects bile-stained gastric contents. This suggests the NG tube is effectively removing gastric secretions.
C. An aspirate pH of 3 is acidic and consistent with gastric placement of the NG tube. This finding supports proper tube positioning and function.
D. Abdominal rigidity may indicate that gastric contents are not being adequately decompressed, suggesting the NG tube is obstructed or not functioning properly. This is an abnormal and concerning finding requiring immediate attention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A fundal height of 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus in a client who is 2 days postpartum is within the expected range for that time frame and does not require immediate assessment.
B. A client who is 1 day postpartum and has not voided in 8 hours may be at risk for urinary retention, which can lead to complications such as bladder distension or urinary tract infection. Prompt assessment and intervention are needed.
C. Not having a bowel movement since prior to admission is not an urgent concern in the
immediate postpartum period, especially if the client is otherwise stable and not experiencing discomfort or other symptoms.
D. Lochia serosa, which is the normal vaginal discharge that occurs 3 to 10 days postpartum, is not an urgent concern and does not require immediate assessment.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
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