A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and asks the nurse why her newborn received a vitamin K injection.
The nurse should explain that the injection is administered in order to prevent which of the following complications in the newborn?
Sepsis.
Tachypnea.
Bleeding.
Jaundice.
The Correct Answer is C
The nurse should explain that the injection is administered in order to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB) in the newborn. Vitamin K is needed for blood clotting, but newborn babies have very low levels of vitamin K in their bodies at birth because only small amounts of the vitamin pass through the placenta and breast milk. VKDB can cause life-threatening bleeding in various parts of the body, such as the brain, intestines, or skin. VKDB can be classified into early-onset, classic, or late- onset depending on the time of presentation after birth. The most effective way to prevent VKDB is to give a single intramuscular dose of 0.5 to 1 mg of vitamin K to all newborn infants within 6 hours of birth.
Choice A is wrong because sepsis is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by bacterial infection.
Choice B is wrong because tachypnea is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by respiratory distress or other conditions.
Choice D is wrong because jaundice is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Blood glucose 130 mg/dL.
This is because the normal range of blood glucose for pregnant women is 70 - 110 mg/dL .
A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL indicates gestational diabetes, which can have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider and initiate interventions such as dietary counseling, glucose monitoring, and insulin therapy if needed.
Choice A is wrong because WBC 7,000/mm³ is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 4,500 to 10,000 cells/mcL .
A low WBC count would indicate an increased risk of infection, while a high WBC count would indicate inflammation or infection.
Choice B is wrong because hemoglobin 13 g/dL is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 11 to 14 g/dL .
A low hemoglobin level would indicate anemia, while a high hemoglobin level would indicate dehydration or polycythemia.
Choice D is wrong because RBC 5.8 million/mm³ is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 4.2 to 5.9 million/mm³ .
A low RBC count would indicate anemia or hemorrhage, while a high RBC count would indicate dehydration or polycythemia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today