A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for the nurse to intervene?
“I’m urinating in larger amounts.”
“I have to sleep sitting up.”
“I suck on hard candy for my dry mouth.”
“I’ve lost 3 pounds in the last week.”
The Correct Answer is B
This statement indicates that the client has orthopnea, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should intervene by assessing the client’s vital signs, oxygen saturation, lung sounds, and edema, and notifying the provider for possible diuretic adjustment.
Choice A is wrong because “I’m urinating in larger amounts.” is an expected outcome of taking furosemide, which is a loop diuretic that increases urine output and reduces fluid retention.
Choice C is wrong because “I suck on hard candy for my dry mouth.” is a harmless way to cope with the side effect of dry mouth caused by furosemide.
Choice D is wrong because “I’ve lost 3 pounds in the last week.” is a positive sign that the client is losing excess fluid and improving their heart failure
condition. A weight loss of 2 to 4 pounds per week is acceptable for clients taking diuretics.
Normal ranges for heart failure clients are:
- Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mmHg
- Heart rate: 60 to 100 beats per minute
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
- Oxygen saturation: greater than 95%
- Weight: stable or decreasing within 2 to 4 pounds per week
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Blood glucose 130 mg/dL.
This is because the normal range of blood glucose for pregnant women is 70 - 110 mg/dL .
A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL indicates gestational diabetes, which can have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider and initiate interventions such as dietary counseling, glucose monitoring, and insulin therapy if needed.
Choice A is wrong because WBC 7,000/mm³ is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 4,500 to 10,000 cells/mcL .
A low WBC count would indicate an increased risk of infection, while a high WBC count would indicate inflammation or infection.
Choice B is wrong because hemoglobin 13 g/dL is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 11 to 14 g/dL .
A low hemoglobin level would indicate anemia, while a high hemoglobin level would indicate dehydration or polycythemia.
Choice D is wrong because RBC 5.8 million/mm³ is within the normal range for pregnant women, which is 4.2 to 5.9 million/mm³ .
A low RBC count would indicate anemia or hemorrhage, while a high RBC count would indicate dehydration or polycythemia.
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