A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed via intravenous (IV) route to treat a bacterial infection. The nurse understands that cefepime is a cephalosporin. and each generation of this medication class is more likely to reach the cerebrospinal fluid and is more effective against gram-negative organisms and anaerobes. What generation of cephalosporin is cefepime?
Second
Fourth
First
Third
The Correct Answer is B
A. Incorrect: Second-generation cephalosporins (e.g., cefuroxime) have moderate gram-negative coverage but do not penetrate the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) as effectively.
B. Correct: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with broad-spectrum activity, better gram-negative coverage, and improved CSF penetration.
C. Incorrect: First-generation cephalosporins (e.g., cephalexin) mainly target gram-positive bacteria.
D. Incorrect: Third-generation cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone) have better gram-negative coverage but less resistance to β-lactamases compared to fourth-generation cephalosporins.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect: COX-1 and COX-2 enzyme inhibition is the mechanism of NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen), not gentamicin.
B. Incorrect: This describes the mechanism of ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril), not gentamicin.
C. Correct: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, leading to bacterial cell death.
D. Incorrect: This describes the action of angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), not gentamicin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect: 1130 is too late for an accurate peak level.
B. Incorrect: 1100 is later than necessary for a peak level.
C. Incorrect: 1000 is when the infusion ends, but the drug has not yet reached peak levels in the blood.
D. Correct: Gentamicin peak levels are typically measured 30 minutes after the infusion is completed. Since the infusion starts at 0900 and runs for 60 minutes (until 1000), the peak level should be drawn at 1030.
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