A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine intravenously. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing morphine toxicity?
Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
Fluid retention
Prolonged QT interval
Bradypnea
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not linked to morphine toxicity. Morphine, an opioid, depresses the central nervous system, reducing reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes suggest neurological or stimulant effects, not opioid overdose, which primarily causes respiratory and consciousness depression in affected clients.
Choice B reason: Fluid retention is not a primary sign of morphine toxicity. Morphine may cause urinary retention via sphincter tone increase, but fluid overload is unrelated. Toxicity manifests as respiratory depression or sedation, driven by mu-opioid receptor overstimulation, not fluid balance alterations.
Choice C reason: Prolonged QT interval is associated with medications like antiarrhythmics, not morphine. Morphine toxicity primarily causes respiratory depression and sedation via central nervous system effects. Cardiac effects are rare, and QT prolongation is not a hallmark of opioid overdose in clinical settings.
Choice D reason: Bradypnea indicates morphine toxicity, as opioids depress the brainstem’s respiratory center via mu-receptor overstimulation. This slows breathing, risking hypoxia and respiratory arrest, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention like naloxone to reverse opioid effects and restore normal respiratory function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A BMI of 32 indicates obesity, a risk factor for surgical wound infections due to impaired tissue perfusion, reduced immune response, and prolonged healing. Excess adipose tissue increases infection likelihood, aligning with evidence-based risk factors, making this the correct finding to identify.
Choice B reason: A temperature of 36.8°C is normal and does not indicate infection risk. Fever (>38°C) post-surgery might suggest infection, but this value reflects stable physiology, making it an incorrect indicator for assessing wound infection risk in this client.
Choice C reason: A white blood cell count of 8,000/mm³ is within normal range (5,000-10,000/mm³) and does not indicate infection risk. Elevated counts suggest active infection, but this value is unremarkable, making it incorrect for identifying infection risk post-surgery.
Choice D reason: A blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is normal (74-106 mg/dL) and does not increase infection risk. Hyperglycemia (>140 mg/dL) impairs immune function, but this value indicates good control, making it incorrect for assessing wound infection risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Informing the client that consent cannot be withdrawn is incorrect, as clients can revoke consent at any time before or during the procedure. This misrepresents patient rights, making it an unethical and illegal statement for the nurse’s role.
Choice B reason: Identifying risks or discomforts is the surgeon’s responsibility, not the nurse’s, during consent. The nurse verifies understanding and voluntariness, not provides risk details, so this action is outside the nurse’s scope, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: Ensuring the client understands the procedure and voluntarily agrees is the nurse’s role when witnessing consent. This verifies informed, autonomous decision-making, aligning with legal and ethical standards, making it the correct responsibility for the nurse.
Choice D reason: Providing a detailed surgical technique explanation is the surgeon’s role, not the nurse’s. The nurse ensures comprehension and consent, not technical details, so this action exceeds the nurse’s scope during consent, making it incorrect.
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