A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine intravenously. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing morphine toxicity?
Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
Fluid retention
Prolonged QT interval
Bradypnea
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not linked to morphine toxicity. Morphine, an opioid, depresses the central nervous system, reducing reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes suggest neurological or stimulant effects, not opioid overdose, which primarily causes respiratory and consciousness depression in affected clients.
Choice B reason: Fluid retention is not a primary sign of morphine toxicity. Morphine may cause urinary retention via sphincter tone increase, but fluid overload is unrelated. Toxicity manifests as respiratory depression or sedation, driven by mu-opioid receptor overstimulation, not fluid balance alterations.
Choice C reason: Prolonged QT interval is associated with medications like antiarrhythmics, not morphine. Morphine toxicity primarily causes respiratory depression and sedation via central nervous system effects. Cardiac effects are rare, and QT prolongation is not a hallmark of opioid overdose in clinical settings.
Choice D reason: Bradypnea indicates morphine toxicity, as opioids depress the brainstem’s respiratory center via mu-receptor overstimulation. This slows breathing, risking hypoxia and respiratory arrest, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention like naloxone to reverse opioid effects and restore normal respiratory function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Starting work in a parking garage while on warfarin does not inherently indicate a need for referral unless specific risks (e.g., injury prone to bleeding) are present. Without additional concerns, this situation is routine, making it incorrect for requiring further care.
Choice B reason: Increased urinary frequency with bumetanide, a diuretic, is an expected side effect, not requiring referral unless severe or accompanied by electrolyte imbalances. This is a normal response, so it does not warrant further care, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: An induration 48 hours after a Mantoux test suggests a positive tuberculosis result, requiring referral for chest X-ray and further evaluation. This finding indicates potential latent or active TB, a significant health concern, making it the correct choice for referral.
Choice D reason: Being 1 day postoperative after knee replacement is expected, with routine monitoring for complications like infection or thrombosis. Without specific issues, this does not require referral beyond standard postoperative care, making it incorrect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Smoked salmon is high in tyramine, which phenelzine, an MAOI, prevents from being metabolized. This risks hypertensive crisis due to norepinephrine release, potentially causing stroke or cardiovascular complications. Avoiding tyramine-rich foods is critical for safety in clients on MAOI therapy.
Choice B reason: Cottage cheese is low in tyramine, safe for phenelzine users. Unlike aged cheeses, fresh dairy poses minimal risk of hypertensive crisis, as it lacks significant tyramine content. MAOIs require avoiding high-tyramine foods, making cottage cheese an acceptable dietary choice for these clients.
Choice C reason: Grapefruit affects CYP450 enzymes, interacting with some drugs, but is not contraindicated with phenelzine. It lacks significant tyramine, so it does not trigger hypertensive crises. Avoidance is unnecessary, as it does not impact MAOI metabolism or related cardiovascular risks.
Choice D reason: Fresh apples are low in tyramine and safe for phenelzine users. MAOIs require avoiding tyramine-rich foods like aged meats, but fresh fruits do not cause hypertensive crises, as they lack amino acids interacting with MAOI metabolism, making them safe for consumption.
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