A nurse is caring for a client who reports heart palpitations that come and go. An ECG confirms the client is experiencing episodes of ventricular tachycardia (VT). The client is stable. The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions?

Elective cardioversion

CPR

Radiofrequency catheter ablation

Defibrillation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Elective cardioversion is a procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm by delivering a controlled electrical shock to the heart. It is generally used for patients with stable atrial or ventricular arrhythmias who do not respond to medication. In the case of stable VT, elective cardioversion might be considered if the arrhythmia is causing symptoms or if the patient’s condition changes
B.   CPR is an emergency procedure used when a person’s heart has stopped beating (cardiac arrest) or when they are not breathing. It is not indicated for a stable VT because the patient is still stable and conscious, and CPR is not used for arrhythmias like VT in a stable patient.
C.   Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a procedure used to destroy abnormal electrical pathways in the heart that cause arrhythmias. This is often used as a treatment for recurrent or persistent VT, especially if medication or cardioversion fails to manage the condition effectively. For a stable patient with VT, this treatment might be considered in the long-term management plan rather than as an immediate intervention.
D.   Defibrillation is the use of an electrical shock to the heart to restore a normal rhythm in cases of life- threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT. It is not used for stable VT because the patient still has a pulse and is not in immediate danger of cardiac arrest

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This is the action of medications like anticholinergics, not lidocaine.
B. Lidocaine does have local anesthetic properties, but it's not used in this context to relieve pain. It's used for its anti-arrhythmic properties.
C. Lidocaine is a class IB anti-arrhythmic medication. It suppresses abnormal heart rhythms, making it a crucial drug in treating cardiac arrest.
D. This is the action of thrombolytic medications like tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), not lidocaine.

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage." B. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count." C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency." D. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Heparin can be used to manage DIC but it's not a lifelong treatment and is part of a complex management plan.
B. DIC actually leads to a decreased platelet count due to excessive clotting.
C. DIC is an acquired condition, not a genetic one, and while vitamin K is involved in clotting, it's not the primary cause of DIC.
D. DIC is a complex disorder involving uncontrolled clotting and bleeding due to the depletion of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

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A nurse is caring for a client who reports heart palpitations that come and go. An ECG confirms the client is experiencing episodes of ventricular tachycardia (VT). The client is stable. The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a client who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest. The client is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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