A nurse is caring for a client who reports heart palpitations that come and go. An ECG confirms the client is experiencing episodes of ventricular tachycardia (VT). The client is stable. The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions?
Elective cardioversion
CPR
Radiofrequency catheter ablation
Defibrillation
The Correct Answer is A
A. Elective cardioversion is a procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm by delivering a controlled electrical shock to the heart. It is generally used for patients with stable atrial or ventricular arrhythmias who do not respond to medication. In the case of stable VT, elective cardioversion might be considered if the arrhythmia is causing symptoms or if the patient’s condition changes
B. CPR is an emergency procedure used when a person’s heart has stopped beating (cardiac arrest) or when they are not breathing. It is not indicated for a stable VT because the patient is still stable and conscious, and CPR is not used for arrhythmias like VT in a stable patient.
C. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a procedure used to destroy abnormal electrical pathways in the heart that cause arrhythmias. This is often used as a treatment for recurrent or persistent VT, especially if medication or cardioversion fails to manage the condition effectively. For a stable patient with VT, this treatment might be considered in the long-term management plan rather than as an immediate intervention.
D. Defibrillation is the use of an electrical shock to the heart to restore a normal rhythm in cases of life- threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT. It is not used for stable VT because the patient still has a pulse and is not in immediate danger of cardiac arrest
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This is the action of medications like anticholinergics, not lidocaine.
B. Lidocaine does have local anesthetic properties, but it's not used in this context to relieve pain. It's used for its anti-arrhythmic properties.
C. Lidocaine is a class IB anti-arrhythmic medication. It suppresses abnormal heart rhythms, making it a crucial drug in treating cardiac arrest.
D. This is the action of thrombolytic medications like tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), not lidocaine.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","G","H"]
Explanation
A. Obtain a wound culture: While important, it is not the immediate priority compared to fluid resuscitation, antibiotic administration, and lactate level measurement.
B. Early administration of antibiotics is crucial in sepsis management to prevent further tissue damage and organ dysfunction.
C. Fluid resuscitation is essential to improve blood pressure and organ perfusion. Rapid administration of fluids is necessary to stabilize the patient.
D. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube might be necessary later if the patient develops gastrointestinal issues, but it's not an immediate priority.
E. While blood transfusion might be necessary if the patient becomes severely hypotensive, it's not the initial step. Fluid resuscitation is attempted first.
F. Urine culture can be helpful in identifying the source of infection but is not the immediate priority.
G. Lactate levels are a biomarker for tissue hypoxia and can help assess the severity of sepsis.
H. Blood cultures are essential to identify the causative organism for targeted antibiotic therapy.
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