A nurse is caring for a client who was injured by a blast of high-order explosives. Medics report secondary injuries from the explosion. The nurse anticipates what type of injuries?

Blunt force trauma

Hollow organ damage

Post-trauma stress disorder

Penetrating injuries

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason:

Blunt force trauma refers to injuries caused by impact with a blunt object, resulting in contusions, abrasions, lacerations, or fractures. While blunt force trauma can occur in explosions, it is typically associated with tertiary blast injuries, where the victim is thrown against a solid object. Secondary injuries from high-order explosives are more specifically related to penetrating injuries caused by flying debris and shrapnel.

Choice B reason:

Hollow organ damage is a type of primary blast injury caused by the overpressure wave from an explosion. This wave can cause significant damage to gas-filled organs such as the lungs, intestines, and ears. However, secondary injuries are not typically characterized by hollow organ damage. Secondary injuries are more commonly associated with penetrating trauma from debris and shrapnel.

Choice C reason:

Post-trauma stress disorder (PTSD) is a psychological condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. While PTSD is a serious and common consequence of exposure to explosions and other traumatic events, it is not classified as a secondary injury. Secondary injuries refer to physical injuries caused by flying debris and shrapnel, not psychological conditions.

Choice D reason:

Penetrating injuries are the hallmark of secondary blast injuries. These injuries occur when fragments from the explosive device or surrounding materials are propelled at high velocity, causing wounds that penetrate the skin and underlying tissues. These injuries can be severe and life-threatening, requiring immediate medical attention. The nurse should anticipate and be prepared to manage penetrating injuries in clients exposed to high-order explosives.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: A negative-pressure isolation room

A negative-pressure isolation room is typically used for patients with airborne infections, such as tuberculosis or measles, to prevent the spread of infectious agents through the air. Scabies, however, is primarily transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact and occasionally through contact with contaminated clothing or bedding. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a scabies patient1.

Choice B: A private room

A private room is the most appropriate choice for a client with scabies. This type of room helps prevent the spread of the infestation to other patients and allows for better control of the environment. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with the infested person or indirectly through contaminated items. Isolating the patient in a private room minimizes the risk of transmission and allows for proper infection control measures to be implemented2.

Choice C: A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis

Placing a scabies patient in a semi-private room with another patient, even one with a different parasitic infection like pediculosis capitis (head lice), is not advisable. Both conditions are highly contagious, and cohabitation increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both infestations. Each condition requires specific treatment and isolation protocols to effectively manage and prevent outbreaks3.

Choice D: A positive-pressure isolation room

A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from external contaminants by ensuring that air flows out of the room rather than in. This type of room is not suitable for a scabies patient, as it does not address the primary mode of transmission for scabies, which is direct contact. The focus for scabies management should be on preventing direct and indirect contact with others4.

A. Secondary prevention B. Primary prevention C. Proactive prevention D. Tertiary prevention

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.

Choice B reason:

Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.

Choice C reason:

Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.

Choice D reason:

Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.

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A nurse is caring for a client who was injured by a blast of high-order explosives. Medics report secondary injuries from the explosion. The nurse anticipates what type of injuries?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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