A nurse is caring for a client whose current bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has finished infusing, and the next bag is not yet available. Which of the following fluids should the nurse prepare to administer?

Lactated Ringer's

Dextrose 10% in water

0.45% sodi’m chloride

0.9% sodium chloride

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Lactated Ringer's: Lactated Ringer's solution is not app’opriate in this si’uation because it does not provide the necessary nutrients found in TPN. It is primarily used for fluid replacement and maintenance and does not contain the essential macronutrients required for TPN.

B) Dextrose 10% in water: This is the correct fluid to administer when the current bag of TPN has finished infusing and the next bag is not yet available. Dextrose 10% in water provides a source of glucose, which can help prevent hypoglycemia in clients dependent on TPN. While it does not provide the full spectrum of nutrients found in TPN, it can temporarily meet the client's caloric needs until the next bag of TP’ becomes available.

C) 0.45% sodium chloride: This solution, also known as half-normal saline, is hypotonic and primarily used for hydration and maintenance fluids. It does not provide adequate nutrition and is not a suitable substitute for TPN.

D) 0.9% sodium chloride: This solution, also known as normal saline, is isotonic and used for fluid resuscitation, maintenance, and replacement. Like 0.45% sodium chloride, it does not contain the necessary nutrients for TPN and is not appropriate as a substitute.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D) Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts centrally on the central nervous system (CNS) to relieve pain. One of the most significant side effects of opioids like oxycodone is respiratory depression, which occurs due to the suppression of the CNS, particularly in the brainstem respiratory centers. The brainstem regulates respiratory rate and rhythm, and when opioids depress these centers, it can lead to decreased respiratory drive, resulting in a decrease in respiratory rate. A respiratory rate of 8/min is significantly below the normal range, indicating respiratory depression caused by oxycodone.

A) Oxycodone inhibits prostaglandin synthesis: Oxycodone does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds with various physiological effects, including inflammation and pain modulation. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen, inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by blocking cyclooxygenase enzymes. However, oxycodone primarily acts on opioid receptors in the CNS to relieve pain, rather than through prostaglandin inhibition.

B) Oxycodone promotes vasodilation of cranial arteries: While opioids can cause peripheral vasodilation, particularly in large doses, the primary mechanism of action of oxycodone is not through the promotion of vasodilation of cranial arteries. Vasodilation may occur as a side effect of opioid use, but it is not the primary cause of respiratory depression associated with oxycodone.

C) Oxycodone blocks the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction: This statement describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics, such as lidocaine, which block sodium channels to inhibit nerve conduction. However, oxycodone is not a sodium channel blocker. Its analgesic effects result from binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, particularly mu-opioid receptors, rather than blocking sodium channels. Therefore, this option is not the pathophysiology for the respiratory rate of 8/min observed in the client receiving oxycodone.

A. Morphine 2 mg IV B. Amitriptyline 25 mg PO C. Ketorolac 15 mg IV D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.

B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.

C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.

D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.

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A nurse is caring for a client whose current bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has finished infusing, and the next bag is not yet available. Which of the following fluids should the nurse prepare to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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