A nurse is caring for a client with HELLP syndrome who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously.
What is the main purpose of this medication?
To prevent seizures
To lower blood pressure
To increase urine output
To improve platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant. In HELLP syndrome and preeclampsia, its primary therapeutic purpose is to provide seizure prophylaxis by decreasing neuromuscular irritability and excitability.
Choice B rationale: While magnesium sulfate may cause slight vasodilation, it is not an antihypertensive agent. Elevated blood pressure in HELLP syndrome is managed with specific medications like hydralazine, labetalol, or nifedipine.
Choice C rationale: Magnesium sulfate does not function as a diuretic. In fact, adequate urine output is a critical assessment for magnesium toxicity, as the medication is primarily excreted by the kidneys.
Choice D rationale: Magnesium sulfate has no direct effect on bone marrow or platelet production. HELLP syndrome is characterized by low platelets; improvement usually only occurs following delivery or resolving the underlying condition.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To increase placental perfusion.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure.By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances.Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.
Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine.Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.
Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.
Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Fetal heart rate decelerations indicate a possible compromise of fetal oxygenation and should be reported to the provider immediately.Decelerations can be caused by various factors such as cord compression, uterine hyperstimulation, maternal hypotension, or placental abruption.
Choice A is wrong because a fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute.
Choice B is wrong because uterine contractions every 10 minutes are not abnormal in a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate.Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in pre-eclampsia, but it does not stop labor.
Choice D is wrong because uterine contractions lasting 60 seconds are not a sign of …
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