A nurse is teaching a client with eclampsia about the purpose of corticosteroid therapy.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
“This medication will help lower my blood pressure.”
“This medication will help prevent seizures.”
“This medication will help my baby’s lungs develop faster.”
“This medication will help reduce inflammation in my body.”
The Correct Answer is C
“This medication will help my baby’s lungs develop faster.” Corticosteroid therapy is given to pregnant clients with eclampsia to accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
• Choice A is wrong because corticosteroids do not lower blood pressure. Antihypertensive drugs such as hydralazine or labetalol are used to treat hypertension in eclampsia.
• Choice B is wrong because corticosteroids do not prevent seizures. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in eclampsia.
• Choice D is wrong because corticosteroids do not reduce inflammation in the body. They may have anti-inflammatory effects in some conditions, but their main purpose in eclampsia is to enhance fetal lung development.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy are:
• Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mm Hg
• Proteinuria: less than 300 mg/24 hours or less than 1+ on dipstick
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To increase placental perfusion.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure.By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances.Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.
Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine.Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.
Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.
Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates that the client has respiratory depression, which is a sign of magnesium toxicity.Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent and treat seizures in clients with eclampsia, but it can also cause adverse effects such as hypotension, decreased urine output, absent or diminished reflexes, and cardiac arrest.
Choice B is wrong because urine output of 50 mL/hr is within the normal range and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.The nurse should monitor the client’s urine output closely and report any decrease below 30 mL/hr.
Choice C is wrong because serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is within the therapeutic range of 4 to 7 mg/dL for clients receiving magnesium sulfate.The nurse should monitor the client’s serum magnesium level regularly and report any increase above 8 mg/dL, which indicates toxicity.
Choice D is wrong because patellar reflex of 2+ is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.The nurse should assess the client’s deep tendon reflexes frequently and report any decrease or absence of reflexes, which indicates toxicity.
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