A nurse is performing a non-stress test (NST) for a client who is 34 weeks pregnant and has pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns indicates a reactive test?
Two or more accelerations of at least 15 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period
No accelerations or decelerations in a 20-minute period
One acceleration of at least 10 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 10 seconds in a 20-minute period
Variable decelerations with normal variability in a 20-minute period
The Correct Answer is A
Two or more accelerations of at least 15 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. This indicates a reactive test, which means that the fetus is well oxygenated and not in distress.
Choice B is wrong because no accelerations or decelerations in a 20-minute period indicate a non-reactive test, which may suggest fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
Choice C is wrong because one acceleration of at least 10 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 10 seconds in a 20-minute period is the criterion for a reactive test for gestational age less than 32 weeks, not 34 weeks.
Choice D is wrong because variable decelerations with normal variability in a 20-minute period indicate cord compression or fetal head compression, not a reactive test.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
According to Mayo Clinic, loss of reflexes is a sign of magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention.
Other signs of magnesium toxicity include:
• Decreased urine output
• Difficulty breathing
• Drowsiness or confusion
• Low blood pressure
• Slow heart rate
• Weakness
Choice B is wrong because headache is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because nausea is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a side effect of magnesium sulfate or a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because blurred vision is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Maintain a dark and quiet environment.This intervention helps to reduce sensory stimulation and prevent seizures in a client with eclampsia.
Choice A is wrong becausemonitoring fetal heart rate and uterine activity continuouslyis not a priority intervention for a client with eclampsia.The priority is to prevent seizures and control blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong becauseadministering oxytocin to augment laboris contraindicated in a client with eclampsia.Oxytocin can increase blood pressure and cause uterine hyperstimulation, which can worsen the condition and endanger the mother and the fetus.
Choice D is wrong becauseencouraging oral fluids and a high-protein dietis not appropriate for a client with eclampsia.
The client should be kept NPO to prevent aspiration in case of a seizure.A high-protein diet can increase the risk of renal failure and hepatic dysfunction.
Choice E is wrong becauseassessing for signs of placental abruptionis not a specific intervention for a client with eclampsia.Placental abruption can occur as a complication of eclampsia, but it is not the main focus of care.
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