A nurse is performing a non-stress test (NST) for a client who is 34 weeks pregnant and has pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns indicates a reactive test?
Two or more accelerations of at least 15 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period
No accelerations or decelerations in a 20-minute period
One acceleration of at least 10 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 10 seconds in a 20-minute period
Variable decelerations with normal variability in a 20-minute period
The Correct Answer is A
Two or more accelerations of at least 15 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. This indicates a reactive test, which means that the fetus is well oxygenated and not in distress.
Choice B is wrong because no accelerations or decelerations in a 20-minute period indicate a non-reactive test, which may suggest fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
Choice C is wrong because one acceleration of at least 10 beats/min above baseline lasting for at least 10 seconds in a 20-minute period is the criterion for a reactive test for gestational age less than 32 weeks, not 34 weeks.
Choice D is wrong because variable decelerations with normal variability in a 20-minute period indicate cord compression or fetal head compression, not a reactive test.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Maintain a dark and quiet environment.This intervention helps to reduce sensory stimulation and prevent seizures in a client with eclampsia.
Choice A is wrong becausemonitoring fetal heart rate and uterine activity continuouslyis not a priority intervention for a client with eclampsia.The priority is to prevent seizures and control blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong becauseadministering oxytocin to augment laboris contraindicated in a client with eclampsia.Oxytocin can increase blood pressure and cause uterine hyperstimulation, which can worsen the condition and endanger the mother and the fetus.
Choice D is wrong becauseencouraging oral fluids and a high-protein dietis not appropriate for a client with eclampsia.
The client should be kept NPO to prevent aspiration in case of a seizure.A high-protein diet can increase the risk of renal failure and hepatic dysfunction.
Choice E is wrong becauseassessing for signs of placental abruptionis not a specific intervention for a client with eclampsia.Placental abruption can occur as a complication of eclampsia, but it is not the main focus of care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To increase placental perfusion.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure.By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances.Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.
Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine.Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.
Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.
Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.
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