A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg.

What is the rationale for administering this medication?

To prevent cerebral edema

To reduce uterine contractions

To increase placental perfusion

To promote diuresis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

To increase placental perfusion.

Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure. By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.

Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.

Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances. Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.

Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.

Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine. Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.

Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.

Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.

Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption. Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

Answer is A and C. Eclampsia is a life-threatening complication of pregnancy that causes seizures due to severe hypertension.The nurse should monitor the fetal heart rate and uterine activity continuously to assess for signs of fetal distress or placental abruption.The nurse should also maintain a dark and quiet environment to reduce stimuli that might trigger seizures.

Statement B is wrong because administering oxytocin to augment labor can increase the risk of uterine rupture and placental abruption in a patient with eclampsia.

Statement D is wrong because encouraging oral fluids and a high-protein diet can worsen the fluid retention and renal impairment in a patient with eclampsia.

Statement E is wrong because assessing for signs of placental abruption is not enough.The nurse should also monitor the vital signs, urine output, neurological status, and laboratory values of the patient with eclampsia.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for non-pregnant adults and less than 140/90 mmHg for pregnant women.Normal ranges for protein in urine are less than 150 mg/day for non-pregnant adults and less than 300 mg/day for pregnant women.

A. To prevent seizures B. To lower blood pressure C. To increase urine output D. To improve platelet count

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Maintain a dark and quiet environment.This intervention helps to reduce sensory stimulation and prevent seizures in a client with eclampsia.

Choice A is wrong becausemonitoring fetal heart rate and uterine activity continuouslyis not a priority intervention for a client with eclampsia.The priority is to prevent seizures and control blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong becauseadministering oxytocin to augment laboris contraindicated in a client with eclampsia.Oxytocin can increase blood pressure and cause uterine hyperstimulation, which can worsen the condition and endanger the mother and the fetus.

Choice D is wrong becauseencouraging oral fluids and a high-protein dietis not appropriate for a client with eclampsia.

The client should be kept NPO to prevent aspiration in case of a seizure.A high-protein diet can increase the risk of renal failure and hepatic dysfunction.

Choice E is wrong becauseassessing for signs of placental abruptionis not a specific intervention for a client with eclampsia.Placental abruption can occur as a complication of eclampsia, but it is not the main focus of care.

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A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg. What is the rationale for administering this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

(select all that apply) A nurse is planning care for a client with eclampsia who is scheduled for delivery as soon as possible. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with HELLP syndrome who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What is the main purpose of this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is preparing to administer antihypertensive therapy to a client with severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following blood pressure readings is the target goal for this client?

A nurse is monitoring a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which of the following signs indicates magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention?

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate IV to a client who has severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is assessing a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to suspect magnesium toxicity?

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A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg.

What is the rationale for administering this medication?