A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are 12 hours postoperative. The nurse should identify that the client who had which of the following procedures is at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome?

Thyroidectomy

Internal fixation of a fractured hip

Repair of a torn rotator cuff

Tympanoplasty

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While there are risks associated with any surgery, thyroidectomy is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES is more commonly linked to orthopedic procedures and trauma, particularly those involving long bones.

Choice B reason: Internal fixation of a fractured hip is a procedure that carries a risk for developing FES. FES is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge within the blood vessels of the lungs or other organs. Hip fractures, especially those involving the long bones, can result in the release of fat globules into the bloodstream during the surgical repair process. Early surgical fixation is thought to reduce the risk of FES.

Choice C reason: Repair of a torn rotator cuff involves the shoulder joint and, while it is a significant surgical procedure, it is not typically associated with a high risk of FES. The rotator cuff is composed of muscles and tendons, and its repair does not usually involve manipulation of the long bones where fat embolism is more likely to occur.

Choice D reason: Tympanoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a hole in the eardrum. It is an otologic procedure that does not involve the long bones or orthopedic manipulation. Therefore, it is not associated with a risk of developing FES.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering prescribed corticosteroids is not the appropriate action for dyspnea associated with fluid overload from IV infusion. Corticosteroids are typically used to manage inflammatory conditions and are not indicated for this scenario.

Choice B reason: Slowing the infusion rate is the correct action when signs of fluid overload are present, such as dyspnea and hypertension. This helps to prevent further fluid accumulation. Contacting the provider is essential for further evaluation and management, which may include adjusting the fluid regimen or prescribing diuretics to manage the fluid overload.

Choice C reason: Lowering the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position may provide temporary relief for dyspnea but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. It is a supportive measure but should be accompanied by other interventions to manage the client's condition.

Choice D reason: Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's would not address the issue of fluid overload and could potentially exacerbate the situation if the rate is maintained. The type of IV fluid is less important than the volume and rate of administration in the case of fluid overload.

A. Two tablets PO (by mouth) every 15 minutes. B. One tablet SL (sublingual) every 15 minutes, up to 5 times. C. One tablet PO (by mouth) every one hour, up to 5 times. D. One tablet SL (sublingual) every 5 minutes, up to 3 times.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Taking two tablets PO every 15 minutes is not the standard protocol for nitroglycerin administration for chest pain. This method could lead to an overdose and significant hypotension (low blood pressure), which can be dangerous.

Choice B reason: One tablet SL every 15 minutes, up to 5 times, is also not the standard protocol. While sublingual administration is correct, the frequency and the total number of doses are higher than recommended, which could result in adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, or a severe drop in blood pressure.

Choice C reason: One tablet PO every one hour, up to 5 times, is not a recommended method for acute chest pain relief from angina. Oral administration does not provide the rapid onset of action required for acute angina relief.

Choice D reason: One tablet SL every 5 minutes, up to 3 times, is the correct protocol for nitroglycerin administration when experiencing chest pain due to angina. If pain persists after the first dose, the patient can take a second dose after 5 minutes, and if needed, a third dose after another 5 minutes. If chest pain continues after three doses in 15 minutes, emergency medical help should be sought immediately.

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A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are 12 hours postoperative. The nurse should identify that the client who had which of the following procedures is at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg, a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is instructing the client on the correct way to take nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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