A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the patient for as a complication of TPN?
Aspiration
Polyuria
C. Stomatitis
Abdominal distention
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Aspiration is not a common complication of TPN. TPN is administered intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract, which reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice B rationale
Polyuria, or excessive urination, is not typically a direct complication of TPN. However, the fluid balance of patients on TPN should be monitored, as both overhydration and dehydration can lead to urinary changes.
Choice C rationale
Stomatitis, or inflammation of the mouth and lips, is not a common complication of TPN. Since TPN bypasses the gastrointestinal tract, it does not typically cause oral complications.
Choice D rationale
Abdominal distention can occur as a complication of TPN. This is because TPN can cause an imbalance in the gut flora, leading to gas production and bloating. Additionally, if a patient on TPN has an underlying condition that affects gut motility, they may experience abdominal distention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ground beef is not the best choice for a client learning about dietary choices. While it is a source of protein, it is also high in saturated fats, which can contribute to heart disease and other health problems. Choice B rationale
Raw vegetables are a good source of fiber and various vitamins and minerals. However, they should be washed thoroughly before consumption to remove any potential contaminants.
Choice C rationale
Fruit with the skin can be a good source of fiber and vitamins. However, like vegetables, they should be washed thoroughly before consumption.
Choice D rationale
High fiber cereals are a great choice for a healthy diet. They can help to regulate bowel movements, lower cholesterol levels, and control blood sugar levels.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Platelet count is not the primary diagnostic test used to monitor the therapy’s effect of warfarin. Platelets are involved in the clotting process, but warfarin specifically works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which does not directly involve platelets.
Choice B rationale
The white blood cell count (WBC) is not used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy. WBC is typically used to monitor for infection or inflammation, not the coagulation status of a patient.
Choice C rationale
Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct answer. Warfarin therapy is monitored using the PT, which is reported as the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which include Factors II, VII, IX, and X, and Proteins C and S. The PT/INR is sensitive to changes in these factors. An elevated INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a lower INR suggests a higher risk of clotting.
Choice D rationale
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy. The aPTT test evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which includes factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II (prothrombin), and I (fibrinogen). Warfarin affects the extrinsic pathway and common pathway, not the intrinsic pathway. Therefore, aPTT is not the best test to monitor the effects of warfarin.
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