A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The client asks, "How will I know if the medication is working?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

"We will monitor your blood pressure to see if it decreases."

"We will check for a reduction in swelling and fluid retention."

"We will assess for a decrease in seizure activity and improved reflexes."

"You should feel less pain and have fewer headaches."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "We will monitor your blood pressure to see if it decreases."
While magnesium sulfate may have a mild antihypertensive effect, it is not primarily given to lower blood pressure; antihypertensives are used for that purpose.

B. "We will check for a reduction in swelling and fluid retention."
Edema in preeclampsia is due to capillary leakage and kidney dysfunction, not directly affected by magnesium sulfate.

C. "We will assess for a decrease in seizure activity and improved reflexes."
Magnesium sulfate is used primarily as a seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia by stabilizing the central nervous system and reducing hyperreflexia and clonus, which are signs of worsening preeclampsia.

D. "You should feel less pain and have fewer headaches."
While magnesium sulfate can improve symptoms, it is not an analgesic and does not directly relieve pain.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Passage of fetal tissue – This finding is more consistent with an incomplete or complete abortion, not a threatened abortion.

B. Bright red vaginal bleeding – A threatened abortion involves vaginal bleeding during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, often bright red in color. The cervix remains closed, and fetal cardiac activity may still be present.

C. Severe cramping and pelvic pain – Severe pain is more typical of an inevitable or incomplete abortion rather than a threatened abortion.

D. Closed cervix upon examination – In a threatened abortion, the cervix remains closed. If the cervix opens, the risk of progressing to an inevitable abortion increases.

E. Mild to moderate lower abdominal cramping – Mild cramping or lower abdominal discomfort is common in a threatened abortion due to uterine contractions. However, severe cramping and passage of fetal tissue would indicate a more advanced pregnancy loss.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

A. Assessment Cues

Unprotected Sexual Activity increases the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The client has had multiple sexual partners in the past month without protection, making her susceptible to infections such as trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis. This is a significant risk factor for her symptoms.
Foul-smelling discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, and other vaginal infections. UTIs primarily cause dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain, not vaginal symptoms. Since the urinalysis does not show leukocytes, nitrates, or bacteria, a UTI is unlikely.

B. Condition – Trichomoniasis

The client's symptoms—green-yellow vaginal discharge, vaginal itching, and foul-smelling odor—are classic signs of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. The disease is associated with malodorous discharge, vaginal irritation, and possible dysuria.

C. Anticipated Solutions

Oral Metronidazole: The first-line treatment for trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole (Flagyl) 2g as a single dose or 500mg twice daily for 7 days. Metronidazole effectively eliminates the infection. Patients must be educated to avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction (severe nausea and vomiting).
Safe sexual behaviors, such as consistent condom use, regular STI screening, mutual monogamy, and open communication about sexual history, are essential for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including trichomoniasis.

Incorrect answers:

Human Papillomavirus (HPV): HPV causes genital warts and increases the risk of cervical cancer, but it does not typically cause vaginal discharge, itching, or foul odor. Therefore, HPV is not the most likely condition in this case.

Depression: While multiple sexual partners and STI diagnoses can cause emotional distress, depression is not directly relevant to her current presentation. However, mental health screening may be beneficial if she expresses concerns about her emotional well-being.

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause genital ulcers, pain, and discomfort. However, based on the client’s symptoms, HSV is not the most likely diagnosis.

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A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The client asks, "How will I know if the medication is working?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is admitted with a threatened abortion. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? Select all that apply. (Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

Exhibits Select a condition, the assessment cues, and anticipated solutions for this client.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

35-year-old postpartum client. Select the condition, risk factors and assessment findings that the client may be experiencing.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The client asks, "How will I know if the medication is working?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

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