A 22-year-old woman visits the clinic requesting birth control. Her medical history includes dysmenorrhea, irregular menstrual cycles, and menorrhagia. She smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily and reports being sexually active with multiple partners. Which birth control method is most appropriate for this client?

Depo-Provera

Contraceptive implant

Combination oral contraceptives

Barrier methods such as female condoms

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. "Depo-Provera."
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection) is effective for contraception, but it may worsen menstrual irregularities and cause bone density loss with long-term use, making it less ideal.

B. "Contraceptive implant."
While progestin-only implants (e.g., Nexplanon) are effective, they do not protect against STIs. Additionally, irregular bleeding is a common side effect, which may not be ideal for someone with menorrhagia and irregular cycles.

C. "Combination oral contraceptives."
Estrogen-containing contraceptives (e.g., combined oral contraceptive pills) are contraindicated in women who smoke and are ≥35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). While this client is 22 years old, smoking still makes this option less preferable.

D. "Barrier methods such as female condoms."
Barrier methods reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which is crucial for this client with multiple sexual partners. Additionally, they do not contain hormones, making them safer for smokers.

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Priority concerns:

Liver function tests: The client has elevated ALT (75 U/L), AST (78 U/L), alkaline phosphatase (184 U/L), and LDH (250 U/L), which are consistent with liver involvement in preeclampsia with severe features. This suggests hepatic dysfunction and possible progression to HELLP syndrome.

Blood pressure: The client’s BP is 168/100 mmHg, which meets the criteria for severe preeclampsia (≥160/110 mmHg). Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of stroke, placental abruption, and progression to eclampsia.

Headache: The persistent headache could indicate severe preeclampsia with neurological involvement due to cerebral vasospasm and increased risk of stroke or seizure. A headache that does not resolve with usual measures is a warning sign, and magnesium sulfate should be considered for seizure prophylaxis.

Not a Priority Concern

Heartburn is a common symptom in pregnancy due to gastric reflux and increased progesterone levels, which relax the lower esophageal sphincter. While it can be uncomfortable, it is not immediately life-threatening.

Gestational age: The client is at 37 weeks’ gestation, which is considered early term but not preterm. While gestational age is important for delivery planning, it is not the most immediate concern compared to the client’s hypertensive crisis.

Cardiac assessment: The apical pulse is 77 bpm, regular, and lungs are clear, indicating that there is no immediate cardiac or respiratory compromise.

A. The client's level of sexual stimulation B. If taken with a high fat meal, the medication is more effective C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client's level of sexual stimulation
Sildenafil requires sexual stimulation to be effective. It enhances blood flow to the penis but does not automatically cause an erection. The client should be educated that adequate sexual arousal is necessary for the medication to work.

B. If taken with a high-fat meal, the medication is more effective
Taking sildenafil with a high-fat meal can actually delay its absorption and reduce effectiveness. Clients should be advised to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal for optimal results.

C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine
Caffeine intake does not interfere with sildenafil’s effectiveness. However, excessive caffeine consumption may contribute to vasoconstriction, which could indirectly affect erectile function.

D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
Taking an extra dose of sildenafil is not recommended and can increase the risk of serious side effects such as hypotension, priapism (prolonged erection), and cardiovascular complications. The client should follow prescribed dosing guidelines.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST) Identify which of the following findings is a priority concern or not for the patient.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

A male client reports to the nurse that he took sildenafil for erectile dysfunction but did not achieve an erection. Which of the following considerations should the nurse evaluate to determine possible reasons for the lack of response?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum and is attempting to breastfeed. Which of the following findings indicate mastitis?

A 56-year-old menopausal woman reports to the registered nurse that she has been experiencing vaginal itching, burning, and an increase in vaginal infections over the past 3 years. What important factor should the nurse consider before responding to the client's concerns?

A client is admitted with a threatened abortion. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? Select all that apply. (Select All that Apply.)

G1P1, 37 weeks' gestation patient with a scheduled nonstress test (NST) As the nurse, you can identify whether the following findings are indicative of preeclampsia, preeclampsia with severe features, or neither. Select at least one answer in each row.

The nurse is monitoring a client in active labor who has an epidural in place. Which of the following findings should be reported to the anesthesiologist immediately? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?