A nurse is caring for an adolescent who states, "I failed my math exam because the teacher doesn't like athletes." The nurse should identify that the adolescent is using which of the following defense mechanisms?
Identification.
Reaction formation.
Regression.
Rationalization.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Identification is a defense mechanism where an individual associates themselves with another person or group. It does not apply to the situation described in the question.
Choice B rationale:
Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings or desires. It is not the most suitable defense mechanism for the situation where the adolescent blames the teacher for their failure.
Choice C rationale:
Regression refers to reverting to an earlier stage of development in response to stress or conflict. It does not align with the adolescent's statement about their teacher disliking athletes.
Choice D rationale:
Rationalization is the defense mechanism in which a person provides logical or socially acceptable reasons for their behavior, even if these reasons are not accurate. In this case, the adolescent is rationalizing their poor performance by blaming the teacher's bias against athletes. This choice best fits the situation described.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Thick, white vaginal discharge is a common symptom of candidiasis, which is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. It is a characteristic finding in this condition.
Choice B rationale:
A hard, painless chancre is associated with syphilis, not candidiasis. This finding is not related to candidiasis.
Choice C rationale:
A feeling of pelvic heaviness is not a typical symptom of candidiasis. It may be associated with other gynecological conditions but is not specific to candidiasis.
Choice D rationale:
Frothy, malodorous discharge is characteristic of trichomoniasis, another type of vaginal infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. It is not a typical finding in candidiasis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hyperreflexia is not a common manifestation of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) SJS typically presents with skin and mucous membrane involvement, such as a skin rash, blistering, and mucosal lesions. Hyperreflexia is more commonly associated with neurological conditions, and it is not a typical symptom of SJS.
Choice B rationale:
Tinnitus with ear pain is not a characteristic manifestation of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) SJS primarily affects the skin and mucous membranes and does not typically involve the ears or auditory system. Tinnitus with ear pain could be related to other ear or auditory issues but is not associated with SJS.
Choice C rationale:
Diplopia (double vision) is not a typical manifestation of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) SJS primarily presents with skin and mucous membrane symptoms, including a rash, blisters, and mucosal lesions. Diplopia is more commonly associated with eye conditions or neurological disorders and is not a direct symptom of SJS.
Choice D rationale:
Skin rash with fever is a crucial manifestation to monitor and report in a client taking allopurinol because it can be indicative of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) Allopurinol is known to be associated with severe skin reactions like SJS, which can initially present as a skin rash with fever. Early recognition and reporting of this symptom are essential to prevent further complications. SJS is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention.
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