A nurse is collecting a health history on a client who has a diagnosis of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is an expected history associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

Current rehabilitation for opiate addiction.

Personal history of alcohol use disorder.

Undergoing current treatment for HIV.

Family history of Alzheimer's disease.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Current rehabilitation for opiate addiction is not typically associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is primarily linked to chronic alcohol abuse and thiamine deficiency.

Choice B rationale:

A personal history of alcohol use disorder is directly associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome is caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, which is commonly seen in individuals who have a history of heavy and chronic alcohol consumption.

Choice C rationale:

Undergoing current treatment for HIV is not a typical factor associated with the development of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome's primary cause is thiamine deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse.

Choice D rationale:

Family history of Alzheimer's disease is not a characteristic linked to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. These two conditions have different etiologies and clinical presentations. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine deficiency, while Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Other than possible coordination problems, the client's psychomotor skills are not affected. Severe Intellectual Disability (ID) is characterized by significant limitations in intellectual functioning as well as adaptive behaviors. Coordination problems are not a primary characteristic of severe ID. The main focus is on cognitive and adaptive deficits.

Choice B rationale:

The client communicates wants and needs by "acting out behaviors." Severe ID can lead to challenges in effective communication. "Acting out behaviors" such as tantrums, aggression, or other disruptive actions might be the client's way of expressing themselves when they are unable to communicate verbally or effectively due to their cognitive limitations.

Choice C rationale:

The client can perform some self-care activities independently. Severe ID typically involves significant impairments in adaptive functioning, which includes self-care activities. The ability to perform some self-care activities independently is not consistent with the characteristics of severe ID.

Choice D rationale:

The client has advanced speech development. Severe ID is associated with delayed or impaired speech and language development. Advanced speech development would be contradictory to the diagnosis of severe ID, as this condition is characterized by substantial limitations in communication skills.

A. Attempt to talk the client down. B. Administer a PRN antianxiety medication. C. Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm. D. Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Attempting to talk the client down is the priority action in this situation. Agitation can escalate to aggression or violence if not addressed appropriately. Engaging in therapeutic communication can help de-escalate the client's agitation, express understanding, and potentially find out the underlying cause of their distress. This approach prioritizes a non-pharmacological intervention.

Choice B rationale:

Administer a PRN antianxiety medication. While medication might be a consideration for managing agitation, it's generally not the first action to take. Non-pharmacological interventions, like therapeutic communication, should be attempted first to minimize the reliance on medications to manage behaviors.

Choice C rationale:

Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm. Placing a client in seclusion should be a last resort and should only be done when there's an immediate risk of harm to the client or others. In this scenario, the client's agitation doesn't seem to present an imminent danger, so seclusion would be an excessive and restrictive intervention.

Choice D rationale:

Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others. Restraint should be an absolute last resort and only used when there's an imminent risk of harm that cannot be managed in any other way. Restraint can escalate agitation and trauma for the client, as well as pose legal and ethical concerns. Therefore, it should only be used when all other options have been exhausted and safety is a critical concern.

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A nurse is collecting a health history on a client who has a diagnosis of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is an expected history associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

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