A nurse is collecting data from a client who gave birth 12 hours ago. The nurse notes the fundus is deviated to the right, boggy, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Administer methylergometrine to the client.
Assist the client to void.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Obtain a stat hemoglobin level.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Administering methylergometrine to the client is not the first action the nurse should take. Methylergometrine is a medication that stimulates uterine contractions and can help reduce postpartum bleeding. However, it can also cause hypertension and should be used with caution in clients with high blood pressure. Furthermore, the nurse should first identify and address the cause of the boggy and deviated fundus before giving any medication.
Choice B reason:
Assisting the client to void is the first action the nurse should take. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting properly, leading to uterine atony and bleeding.
The nurse should help the client empty her bladder by encouraging her to use the bathroom, providing privacy, running water, or using a bedpan. This can help the uterus return to its normal position and tone.
Choice C reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first action the nurse should take. A urinary catheter can be used to drain the bladder if the client is unable to void or has a large amount of residual urine. However, it can also increase the risk of infection and trauma to the urethra
and bladder. The nurse should first try noninvasive methods to help the client void, such as those mentioned in choice B.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining a stat hemoglobin level is not the first action the nurse should take. A hemoglobin level can indicate the extent of blood loss and the need for transfusion or other interventions. However, it is not a priority over restoring uterine tone and preventing further bleeding. The nurse should first assist the client to void and then massage the fundus if it remains boggy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Choice B reason:
Naloxone is an antidote for opioid overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Choice C reason:
Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Choice D reason:
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat preeclampsia and prevent seizures, but it can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias if given in excess. Calcium gluconate reverses the effects of magnesium by stabilizing the cell membrane and increasing the contractility of the heart.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Diminished deep-tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity, not safety. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that can cause muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest if given in excess. The nurse should monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes and stop the infusion if they are absent or reduced.
Choice B reason:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is a normal finding and indicates that the client is not experiencing respiratory depression from magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate and stop the infusion if it falls below 12/min.
Choice C reason:
A heart rate of 60/min is a normal finding and indicates that the client is not experiencing bradycardia from magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and stop the infusion if it falls below 50/min.
Choice D reason:
Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hr is a sign of oliguria, not safety. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal impairment and fluid retention if given in excess. The nurse should monitor the client's urine output and stop the infusion if it falls below 30 mL/hr.
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