A nurse is collecting data from a client who has AIDS. The nurse notes that the client has multiple, widespread purplish-brown skin lesions. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed which of the following types of skin lesions?
Actinic keratosis
Kaposi's sarcoma
Actinic dermatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Actinic keratosis is a rough, scaly patch on the skin caused by long-term sun exposure. It is usually not purplish-brown and is more common in fair-skinned individuals. These lesions are considered pre-cancerous and can develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. The description of purplish-brown lesions in the context of an AIDS diagnosis is more indicative of Kaposi's sarcoma.
Choice B reason: Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. It often presents as purplish-brown, red, or bluish lesions on the skin or mucous membranes and is commonly associated with AIDS. The multiple, widespread nature of the lesions described aligns with the typical presentation of Kaposi's sarcoma, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Actinic dermatitis, also known as photodermatitis, is an inflammatory reaction of the skin to sunlight. It does not typically present as purplish-brown lesions. This condition manifests as redness, swelling, and possibly blistering in sun-exposed areas. The description given is not consistent with actinic dermatitis and points more towards Kaposi's sarcoma in an AIDS client.
Choice D reason: Basal cell carcinoma does not usually present with multiple, widespread purplish-brown lesions. It is typically a localized lesion that appears as a pearly or waxy bump. The description of multiple, widespread lesions is more characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma in clients with AIDS, making basal cell carcinoma an unlikely diagnosis in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Positioning the client supine may increase intracranial pressure. The client should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated to promote drainage and reduce pressure.
Choice B reason: The correct answer is b because changing the nasal drip pad as needed helps monitor for excessive drainage, cerebrospinal fluid leaks, and infection following pituitary gland removal.
Choice C reason: Frequent brushing of teeth should be avoided initially to prevent disruption of the surgical site and decrease the risk of infection. Gentle oral hygiene can be encouraged instead.
Choice D reason: Encouraging the client to cough every 2 hours can increase intracranial pressure and is not recommended following pituitary gland surgery. Deep breathing exercises without coughing are more appropriate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The correct answer is a because hyperkalemia, or high serum potassium levels, often leads to peaked T waves on an ECG. A reduction of T wave amplitude indicates that potassium levels are decreasing and the medication is effective.
Choice B reason: P wave duration is not typically affected by hyperkalemia. Changes in the P wave are more commonly associated with atrial abnormalities, not electrolyte imbalances.
Choice C reason: Widening of the QRS complex is a sign of severe hyperkalemia and indicates worsening of the condition. The goal of treatment is to prevent such changes, not to observe them as an indication of effectiveness.
Choice D reason: Restoration of QRS complex amplitude is not a specific indicator of hyperkalemia or its treatment. The focus should be on changes in the T wave and other signs of electrolyte normalization.
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