A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Contraction Stress Test (CST).

Which statement accurately describes a negative CST?

No contractions were induced during the test.

Late decelerations of the FHR were observed with at least 50% of contractions.

The FHR remained stable throughout the test.

The client experienced mild uterine cramping during the tes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This means that the baby’s heart rate did not slow down after the contractions induced by oxytocin, which is a sign of normal fetal well-being.

A negative CST is normal and desirable.

Choice A is wrong because no contractions were induced during the test.

This means that the test was inconclusive and could not assess the baby’s response to stress.

Choice B is wrong because late decelerations of the FHR were observed with at least 50% of contractions.

This means that the baby’s heart rate slowed down and stayed slow after the contractions, which is a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia.

A positive CST is abnormal and concerning.

Choice D is wrong because the client experienced mild uterine cramping during the test.

This is not a relevant factor for interpreting the CST results, which depend on the FHR patterns.

Uterine cramping can be a side effect of oxytocin administration or nipple stimulation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

This is because cramping and vaginal bleeding after an amniocentesis may indicate a possible miscarriage or placental abruption, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and perfusion.

Monitoring fetal heart rate can help detect signs of fetal distress and guide further interventions.

Choice A is wrong because administering Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for Rh-negative mothers who undergo amniocentesis to prevent isoimmunization, but it is not a priority action in this scenario.

Choice C is wrong because assessing maternal vital signs is important to monitor for signs of infection, hemorrhage, or shock, but it is not as urgent as monitoring fetal well-being.

Choice D is wrong because obtaining an order for an ultrasound exam can help confirm the diagnosis and evaluate the placenta and amniotic fluid, but it is not the first action to take in this situation.

A. A 25-year-old client who has migraine headaches with aura. B. A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis. C. A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome D. A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because migraine headaches with aura are a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they increase the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.

Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

Choice B: A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.

This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can actually help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual bleeding.

Choice C: A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help regulate the menstrual cycle and lower the levels of androgens (male hormones) that cause acne, hirsutism (excess hair growth), and other problems in women with PCOS.

Choice D: A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.

This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help normalize the menstrual cycle and prevent unintended pregnancy.

Normal ranges for oral contraceptive doses are:

Estrogen: 10 to 35 mcg of ethinyl estradiol or estradiol valerate

Progestin: varies depending on the type and brand of oral contraceptive

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A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Contraction Stress Test (CST). Which statement accurately describes a negative CST?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient who had an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks gestation and reports cramping and vaginal bleeding 24 hours later which action should be taken first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing contraception options for four clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients has a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Non-Stress Test (NST). Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the test?

A nurse is caring for a client who had an amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation and reports cramping and vaginal bleeding 24 hours later. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A client is scheduled for a transvaginal ultrasound in two weeks. The client asks the nurse what they should do to prepare for the test. What is the best response by the nurse?

During a CST, the nurse observes variable decelerations of the FHR with or without contractions. What does this finding indicate?

A nurse is preparing a client for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should instruct the client that the test involves which of the following procedures?

A nurse is reviewing the results of an Alpha-fetoprotein Test (AFP) with a pregnant client. What does a low level of AFP (<0.5 MoM) potentially indicate?

A client's CST result is interpreted as equivocal. What additional diagnostic test may be recommended to further evaluate fetal well-being?

A nurse is performing an abdominal ultrasound for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following before the procedure?

A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Contraction Stress Test (CST).

Which statement accurately describes a negative CST?