A nurse is explaining advance care directives, or “living wills,” to a client and the client’s spouse. Which detail would the nurse include in the description of an advance care directive?

The document tells what treatment is to be omitted or provided if the client is unable to make the decision.

A client is required to sign the “living will” document with an attorney present.

An attorney draws up the papers to be given to the client and his or her family.

The client’s physician must act as a witness when the client signs the document.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is A.
Choice A reason:
An advance care directive, or “living will,” is a legal document that specifies what medical treatments the client wishes to receive or omit if they become unable to make decisions for themselves. This document guides healthcare providers and family members in making decisions that align with the client’s preferences.
Choice B reason:
A client is not required to sign the “living will” document with an attorney present. While it is advisable to consult with an attorney when creating legal documents, it is not a requirement for the validity of an advance care directive.
Choice C reason:
An attorney may assist in drafting the advance care directive, but it is not necessary for the attorney to draw up the papers. The client can create the document with the help of healthcare providers or legal advisors.
Choice D reason:
The client’s physician does not need to act as a witness when the client signs the document. Typically, witnesses are required to ensure the document is signed voluntarily and without coercion, but they do not have to be the client’s physician.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:
An electroencephalogram (EEG) monitor is essential for monitoring the brain’s electrical activity during ECT. This equipment helps ensure that the treatment is administered safely and effectively by providing real-time data on the patient’s brain waves. The EEG monitor is crucial for assessing the patient’s response to the therapy and detecting any abnormalities.
Choice B reason:
An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the interior structures of the eyes, which is not relevant to the ECT procedure. Therefore, it is not necessary to set up an ophthalmoscope in the room prior to ECT. The focus of ECT preparation is on monitoring the patient’s neurological and cardiovascular status, not on eye examinations.
Choice C reason:
A cardiac monitor is vital for tracking the patient’s heart rate and rhythm during ECT. This equipment helps detect any cardiac abnormalities or arrhythmias that may occur as a result of the treatment. Continuous cardiac monitoring ensures that any potential complications can be promptly addressed, making it an essential piece of equipment for ECT.
Choice D reason:
A blood pressure monitor is necessary for measuring the patient’s blood pressure before, during, and after the ECT procedure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for detecting any significant changes that could indicate cardiovascular stress or other complications. This equipment helps ensure the patient’s safety throughout the treatment.
Choice E reason:
A portable X-ray machine is not required for ECT. X-rays are used for imaging purposes, which are not part of the standard ECT procedure. The primary focus during ECT is on monitoring the patient’s neurological and cardiovascular status, making the portable X-ray machine unnecessary for this context.

A. Impaired interpersonal relationships B. Inability to initiate activities C. Disorganized behavior D. Antisocial personality E. Hallucinations F. Lack of emotional expression

Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Impaired interpersonal relationships can be a consequence of schizophrenia, but it is not a specific diagnostic criterion in the DSM-5. The criteria focus on more direct symptoms of the disorder.

Choice B reason:

Inability to initiate activities may be related to negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition, but it is not explicitly listed as a diagnostic criterion in the DSM-5. The criteria include more specific symptoms like disorganized behavior and hallucinations.

Choice C reason:

Disorganized behavior is one of the core symptoms of schizophrenia according to the DSM-5. It includes behaviors that are inappropriate or not goal-directed, reflecting a disruption in normal functioning.

Choice D reason:

Antisocial personality is a separate diagnosis and not a criterion for schizophrenia. Schizophrenia and antisocial personality disorder are distinct conditions with different diagnostic criteria.

Choice E reason:

Hallucinations are a key symptom of schizophrenia. They involve perceiving things that are not present, such as hearing voices or seeing things that others do not see. Hallucinations are one of the primary positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Choice F reason:

Lack of emotional expression, also known as affective flattening, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It involves a reduced ability to express emotions and is a significant criterion in the diagnosis of schizophrenia.

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A nurse is explaining advance care directives, or “living wills,” to a client and the client’s spouse. Which detail would the nurse include in the description of an advance care directive?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to assist with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following pieces of equipment should the nurse set up in the room prior to the treatment? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia. Which of the following symptoms must be present for a client to be diagnosed with schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]

Explanation

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