. A nurse is implementing a bladder retraining program for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Assist the client to the bathroom every 2 hr.
Encourage the client to hold her urine when feeling the urge to urinate.
Restrict oral fluid intake during waking hours.
Provide adult diapers until bladder retraining is successful.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Assisting the client to the bathroom every 2 hours may not support bladder retraining, which aims to increase the time between voids and encourage the client to recognize the need to urinate.
B. Encouraging the client to hold her urine when feeling the urge is a key component of bladder retraining, as it helps to increase bladder capacity and promotes a normal voiding pattern.
C. Restricting oral fluid intake is not recommended, as it can lead to dehydration and may not effectively aid in bladder retraining. Adequate fluid intake is essential for bladder health.
D. Providing adult diapers does not promote bladder retraining; it may enable continued incontinence rather than encouraging the client to regain control over bladder function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Although the adolescent in a halo brace has some immobility, the greatest risk factors for skin breakdown involve areas where prolonged pressure is applied, and older adults are more vulnerable due to age-related skin changes.
B. A fractured radius and arm cast do not pose a significant risk for skin breakdown because the client can still mobilize and reposition themselves, reducing prolonged pressure.
C. An older adult with a hip fracture in Buck's traction is at greatest risk for skin breakdown due to immobility, pressure from the traction setup, and the reduced skin elasticity and healing capacity that come with age.
D. While skeletal balanced suspension traction poses some risk, a young adult typically has better skin integrity and mobility than an older adult, reducing the risk for skin breakdown.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A significant drop in blood pressure from 138/86 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg indicates potential hypovolemia or hemorrhage, which requires immediate intervention to prevent shock or other complications. This is the most critical finding among the clients.
B. A client with stable blood glucose levels between 110 mg/dL and 100 mg/dL is not a priority, as these readings are within a normal range and do not indicate immediate danger.
C. The transition of wound drainage from sanguineous to serosanguineous is a normal part of the healing process and is not an urgent concern.
D. A mild increase in pain from 1 to 3 on a 1 to 10 scale is also not an immediate priority, as it remains within a low pain range and can be managed with routine pain control measures.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.