A nurse is monitoring a client receiving an infusion of IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following findings would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing hypermagnesemia?

Hypertension and headache

Tachycardia and tachypnea

Depressed deep tendon reflexes

Positive Trousseau's sign

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Hypertension and headache are not typical signs of hypermagnesemia. These symptoms are more commonly associated with conditions like hypertension or intracranial pressure.
B. Tachycardia and tachypnea are not characteristic of hypermagnesemia. In fact, hypermagnesemia typically causes bradycardia and hypoventilation due to the depressant effect of magnesium on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
C. Depressed deep tendon reflexes are a classic sign of hypermagnesemia. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant, and elevated magnesium levels can impair neuromuscular function, leading to reduced reflexes.
D. Positive Trousseau's sign is indicative of hypocalcemia, not hypermagnesemia. It is a sign of low calcium levels, where a blood pressure cuff inflated above systolic pressure for 3 minutes causes muscle spasms in the hand and forearm.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. An area of non-blanchable redness on intact skin is characteristic of a stage I pressure injury, not stage II. In stage I, the skin remains intact but shows redness that does not blanch when pressed.
B. An area of shallow broken skin with blistering describes a stage II pressure injury. Stage II involves partial-thickness loss of skin, which may present as a blister or shallow open ulcer, often with a pink or red wound bed.
C. Deep purple discoloration over intact skin refers to a suspected deep tissue injury, which is a different classification of pressure injury. It indicates damage to underlying tissue but does not involve a break in the skin.
D. An open wound with visible adipose tissue and eschar is indicative of a stage III pressure injury, which involves full-thickness skin loss and may expose underlying structures like fat, but not bone or muscle (which would indicate stage IV). Stage III wounds may also have eschar or slough, but stage II wounds do not.

A. Antihypertensive medication B. Fluid replacement C. Potassium laboratory monitoring D. Insulin IV infusion

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Antihypertensive medication is not a priority intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL, which indicates hyperglycemia, likely due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The focus should be on correcting the hyperglycemia and preventing complications like dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
B. Fluid replacement is essential to treat dehydration caused by hyperglycemia, as high blood glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis.
C. Potassium laboratory monitoring is crucial because insulin treatment can shift potassium into cells, potentially causing hypokalemia, so monitoring is necessary during treatment.
D. Insulin IV infusion is necessary to lower the blood glucose level in clients with severe hyperglycemia, such as in DKA or HHS.

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A nurse is monitoring a client receiving an infusion of IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following findings would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing hypermagnesemia?

Nursing Test Bank

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