A nurse is monitoring a client with COPD that suddenly becomes restless and anxious. Which of the following steps should the nurse take next?

Assess the client's potassium level.

Check the client's temperature.

Increase the client's oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min.

Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Assess the client's potassium level:
While electrolyte imbalances, including low potassium, can contribute to symptoms like restlessness or muscle weakness, it is not the first priority in a client with COPD who suddenly becomes restless and anxious. Restlessness and anxiety in this context are more likely to be due to hypoxia (low oxygen levels), hypercapnia (high carbon dioxide levels), or respiratory distress.

B) Check the client's temperature:
An elevated temperature may indicate an infection, such as pneumonia or a respiratory tract infection, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms. However, in the context of sudden restlessness and anxiety, this is less likely to be the most immediate cause. The primary concern should be addressing the potential respiratory issues, such as hypoxia or acute exacerbation, rather than focusing on fever, unless other signs of infection are present.

C) Increase the client's oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min:
While it is important to ensure adequate oxygenation in a client with COPD, increasing the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min may not be appropriate, as COPD patients are typically at risk for oxygen-induced hypercapnia. These patients often rely on low levels of oxygen to stimulate breathing, and administering high-flow oxygen can suppress their respiratory drive, potentially worsening carbon dioxide retention.

D) Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing:
Pursed-lip breathing is a highly effective technique for COPD patients to help increase oxygenation and decrease the work of breathing. This technique involves the client breathing in through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips, which helps to keep the airways open longer and facilitates the removal of trapped air in the lungs.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Women should start yearly mammograms at age 40:
Mammography is a key screening tool for breast cancer detection. According to guidelines from the American Cancer Society (ACS) and other leading health organizations, women should begin annual mammograms at age 40. This recommendation applies to average-risk women who are not showing any symptoms of breast cancer. Mammograms are effective in detecting early-stage breast cancer, which is crucial for better treatment outcomes.

B) Women should have a yearly clinical breast examination starting at age 50:
The clinical breast examination (CBE) is a physical exam performed by a healthcare provider to check for breast cancer. However, the recommendation is to have a clinical breast examination every 1-3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and annually for women 40 and older, not just beginning at age 50. It is not necessary to wait until age 50 to start yearly CBEs.

C) Clients should have fecal occult blood test every other year:
The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which may be a sign of colon cancer. However, this test is not typically performed every other year for all clients. The recommended schedule for colorectal cancer screening depends on risk factors. The American Cancer Society recommends annual FOBT or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) for clients over the age of 45 who are at average risk for colon cancer. More invasive tests, such as colonoscopy, are generally recommended for people at higher risk or after positive results from non-invasive tests like FOBT.

D) Clients should have a colonoscopy at age 40 and every 10 years thereafter:
The recommended age for the first colonoscopy is age 45 for individuals at average risk of colorectal cancer, not 40. Colonoscopies are typically performed every 10 years after the initial screening unless there are risk factors (e.g., family history, genetic conditions) that require earlier or more frequent screenings.

A. Jaundice B. Hyperglycemia C. Hypertension D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Jaundice:
Carbidopa-levodopa works by increasing dopamine levels in the brain to help alleviate symptoms of Parkinson's disease, but it is not typically associated with liver dysfunction that would lead to jaundice. If jaundice were to occur, it could indicate liver problems, which would need to be evaluated further, but this is not a typical side effect of Sinemet.

B) Hyperglycemia:
Sinemet primarily affects dopamine levels in the brain and does not have a direct impact on blood sugar regulation. However, long-term use of certain medications, especially corticosteroids or other specific treatments, can affect glucose levels, but carbidopa-levodopa is not typically linked to hyperglycemia.

C) Hypertension:

Carbidopa-levodopa may lead to fluctuations in blood pressure, including lowering blood pressure, especially when the patient is changing positions. However, hypertension is not a typical response to this medication. Instead, patients may experience orthostatic hypotension, which is more common with carbidopa-levodopa.

D) Orthostatic hypotension:
Orthostatic hypotension is a well-recognized and common side effect of carbidopa-levodopa. This occurs because Sinemet affects the autonomic nervous system, which can cause a decrease in blood pressure when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients on carbidopa-levodopa should be advised to rise slowly to minimize the risk of dizziness or fainting due to orthostatic hypotension.

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