A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. Which of the following should he plan to include in the session? (Select all that apply.)
Smallpox
Hydrogen cyanide
Botulism
Anthrax
Sarin
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A Reason: This is correct because smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly viral disease that can be used as a biological weapon. Smallpox was eradicated in 1980, but some samples of the virus are still stored in laboratories. If released intentionally, smallpox could cause a global pandemic.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because hydrogen cyanide is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Hydrogen cyanide is a colorless gas that interferes with cellular respiration and causes rapid death.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because botulism is a serious and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Botulism can be used as a biological weapon by contaminating food or water supplies or by aerosolizing the toxin.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because anthrax is an infection caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax can be used as a biological weapon by releasing the spores into the air or by contaminating food or water sources.
Choice E Reason: This is incorrect because sarin is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Sarin is a nerve agent that blocks the transmission of nerve impulses and causes respiratory failure and death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is: B. Initiate oxygen therapy.
Choice A reason:
Attaching the leads for a 12-lead ECG is crucial for diagnosing a myocardial infarction. However, it is not the first priority. Ensuring the patient receives adequate oxygen is more critical to prevent further myocardial damage. The ECG can be performed immediately after oxygen therapy is initiated to confirm the diagnosis and guide further treatment.
Choice B reason:
Initiating oxygen therapy is the first priority because it ensures that the heart muscle receives adequate oxygen, which is essential to prevent further damage during a myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps to maintain tissue oxygenation and can reduce the extent of myocardial injury. This immediate intervention is vital to stabilize the patient and improve outcomes.
Choice C reason:
Inserting the IV catheter is important for administering medications and fluids. However, it is not the first step. Oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure the heart and other vital organs receive sufficient oxygen. Once oxygen is administered, IV access can be established to facilitate further treatment.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining a blood sample is necessary for confirming the diagnosis and assessing cardiac markers. However, it is not the immediate priority. Ensuring the patient is oxygenated is more urgent to prevent further myocardial damage. Blood samples can be drawn after oxygen therapy is initiated.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Fatigue is a manifestation that the nurse should identify as indicating the client is hypokalemic. Hypokalemia is a condition in which the blood potassium level is lower than normal, usually due to excessive loss of potassium through urine, sweat, or vomiting. Potassium is an electrolyte that is essential for nerve and muscle function, especially for the heart. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue, as well as cardiac arrhythmias and dysrhythmias.
Choice B: Dyspnea is not a manifestation that the nurse should identify as indicating the client is hypokalemic. Dyspnea is a sensation of difficulty breathing or shortness of breath. Dyspnea can be caused by various conditions, such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pneumonia, or pulmonary edema. Dyspnea is not directly related to hypokalemia, but it can be a sign of heart failure, which can cause fluid accumulation in the lungs and impair gas exchange.
Choice C: Oliguria is not a manifestation that the nurse should identify as indicating the client is hypokalemic. Oliguria is a reduced urine output, usually less than 400 mL per day or 30 mL per hour. Oliguria can be caused by various conditions, such as dehydration, kidney failure, urinary tract obstruction, or shock. Oliguria is not directly related to hypokalemia, but it can be a sign of kidney damage or impairment, which can affect electrolyte balance and fluid volume.
Choice D: Pitting edema is not a manifestation that the nurse should identify as indicating the client is hypokalemic. Pitting edema is a swelling of the tissues that leaves an indentation when pressed with a finger. Pitting edema can be caused by various conditions, such as venous insufficiency, lymphedema, liver cirrhosis, or malnutrition. Pitting edema is not directly related to hypokalemia, but it can be a sign of heart failure, which can cause fluid retention and overload in the body.
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