A nurse is planning care for a child who has mumps. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
Initiate contact precautions.
Initiate standard precautions.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Initiate droplet precautions.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: Contact precautions are not necessary for a child who has mumps, as mumps is not transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the infected person or their environment. Contact precautions are used for infections that are spread by contact with skin, wounds, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces.
Choice B: Standard precautions are always used for any patient care, regardless of their diagnosis or infection status. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE), safe injection practices, and proper disposal of waste and sharps. However, standard precautions alone are not sufficient for a child who has mumps, as mumps are transmitted by respiratory droplets.
Choice C: Airborne precautions are not necessary for a child who has mumps, as mumps are not transmitted by small particles that remain suspended in the air and can be inhaled by others. Airborne precautions are used for infections that are spread by airborne transmission, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox.
Choice D: Droplet precautions are required for a child who has mumps, as mumps are transmitted by large respiratory droplets that are expelled when the infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Droplet precautions include wearing a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the patient, placing the patient in a private room or cohorts with other patients with the same infection, and limiting visitors and staff who are susceptible to the infection.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Shingles is a viral infection that causes a painful rash, usually on one side of the body. It is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox. Shingles is not related to tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection.
Choice B: Valley fever is a fungal infection that affects the lungs and can cause flu-like symptoms, such as fever, cough, and chest pain. It is caused by inhaling spores from a fungus that grows in dry soil. Valley fever is not related to tinea pedis, which affects the skin of the feet.
Choice C: Athlete's foot is a common name for tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection that affects the skin between the toes and on the soles of the feet. It can cause itching, burning, scaling, and cracking of the skin. Athlete's foot is contagious and can be spread by direct contact or by sharing shoes, socks, or towels.
Choice D: Fever blister is another name for a cold sore, which is a small blister that forms on or near the lips. It is caused by a type of herpes virus that can be transmitted by kissing or sharing utensils. Fever blister is not related to tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because a 1-year-old toddler who has roseola and a temperature of 39° C (102.2° F) is not the most urgent case to assess. Roseola is a viral infection that causes a rash on the trunk and limbs, followed by a high fever that lasts for several days. It usually affects infants and young children and is self-limiting.
The fever can be managed by giving antipyretics such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, and by providing fluids and comfort measures. The fever does not indicate any serious complication or threat to life.
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect because a 4-year-old child who has asthma and an O2 sat of 97% is not the most urgent case to assess. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, or shortness of breath. It may be triggered by allergens, irritants, exercise, or infections. The O2 sat is a measure of oxygen saturation in the blood, which indicates how well oxygen is delivered to the tissues. A normal O2 sat range is 95% to 100%, so an O2 sat of 97% indicates that the child has adequate oxygenation and is not in respiratory distress.
Choice C reason: This choice is correct because a 10-year-old child who has sickle cell anemia and reports severe chest pain is the most urgent case to assess. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes the red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and clump together, blocking the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues. It may cause severe pain in the chest, abdomen, joints, or bones, as well as symptoms such as pallor, jaundice, fatigue, or shortness of breath. Severe chest pain may indicate acute chest syndrome, which is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell anemia that involves infection or infarction of the lungs. It may cause fever, cough, hypoxia, or respiratory failure. Therefore, assessing and treating this child is a priority to prevent further damage and death.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect because a 7-year-old child who has diabetes insipidus and a urine specific gravity of 1.016 is not the most urgent case to assess. Diabetes insipidus is a rare disorder that affects the balance of fluids in the body. It causes the kidneys to produce large amounts of dilute urine, leading to polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, or electrolyte imbalance. It may be caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or a resistance to its action. The urine specific gravity is a measure of urine concentration, which indicates how well the kidneys are functioning. A normal urine specific gravity range is 1.005 to 1.030, so a urine specific gravity of 1.016 indicates that the child has normal urine concentration and is not dehydrated.
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