A nurse is planning care for a client who has atrial fibrillation and reports heart palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Pericardiocentesis
Septal myectomy
Pericardial window
Synchronized electrical cardioversion
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to remove fluid from the pericardial sac and is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation. It is more commonly indicated for conditions such as pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade.
Choice B rationale
Septal myectomy is a surgical intervention to remove part of the thickened septal wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. It is primarily used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale
A pericardial window is a procedure that creates an opening in the pericardium to allow fluid to drain into the surrounding chest cavity. This procedure is not a treatment for atrial fibrillation.
Choice D rationale
Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure where a controlled electric shock is delivered to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is a common and effective treatment for atrial fibrillation, especially when the condition is causing significant symptoms like palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A high calcium diet and hypercalcemia are not directly associated with pyelonephritis. While dietary habits and blood calcium levels can impact overall health, they do not typically contribute to the development of pyelonephritis.
Choice B rationale
Long-term use of ibuprofen can lead to kidney damage, which may increase the risk of pyelonephritis, especially if there is pre-existing kidney impairment. However, it is not as directly related to pyelonephritis as a history of UTIs.
Choice C rationale
A history of UTIs is relevant to pyelonephritis, as the infection can ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, making this the most likely report from the client.
Choice D rationale
Genetic diseases can have various impacts on health, but there is no common genetic disease that directly causes pyelonephritis. This choice is less likely to be relevant to the client's current condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hemorrhage refers to bleeding, which can be a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease but does not lead to the spilling of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.
Choice B rationale
Dumping syndrome is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, which can cause symptoms like nausea and abdominal pain, but it does not involve the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.
Choice C rationale
Perforation is the correct answer because it describes a hole forming in the wall of the stomach or duodenum, allowing gastric contents to spill into the peritoneal cavity, leading to peritonitis, which is a severe and life-threatening condition.
Choice D rationale
Gastric outlet obstruction is a blockage at the end of the stomach that prevents contents from entering the small intestine, which can cause vomiting and abdominal pain, but it does not result in the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.
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