A nurse is planning care for a client who has worsening heart failure and is experiencing arrhythmias. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate the client will require to regulate the rhythm?
Synchronized electrical cardioversion
Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)
Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention
Echocardiogram
The Correct Answer is B
A. Synchronized electrical cardioversion: Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure used to restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, it is not typically indicated for all patients with worsening heart failure and arrhythmias.
B. Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT): CRT, also known as biventricular pacing, involves the placement of a specialized pacemaker device to improve the coordination of contractions between the heart's chambers. It is often used in patients with heart failure and arrhythmias to help regulate the rhythm and improve cardiac function.
C. Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention: Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention, such as angioplasty or stent placement, is used to treat coronary artery disease by opening narrowed or blocked blood vessels. While coronary artery disease may contribute to heart failure, this procedure specifically targets the coronary arteries rather than arrhythmias.
D. Echocardiogram : An echocardiogram is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function. While an echocardiogram may provide valuable information about the heart's condition in a patient with heart failure and arrhythmias, it is not a procedure used to regulate the rhythm directly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Creatine kinase (CK) test: While creatine kinase isoenzymes, including CK-MB, can be elevated following myocardial infarction (MI), they are not specific to cardiac muscle injury. CK is found in various tissues throughout the body, so elevated levels can also indicate damage to skeletal muscle or brain tissue, among other sources.
B. Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test: CK-MB is a cardiac-specific isoform of creatine kinase, and elevated levels can indicate myocardial injury, particularly in the context of an acute MI. However, troponin T is a more sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury.
C. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test: Brain natriuretic peptide is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. While elevated BNP levels can indicate heart muscle strain or stress, they are not specific markers for acute myocardial infarction or early injury to the cardiac muscle.
D. Troponin T test: This is the correct answer. Troponin T is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle injury. Elevated troponin levels can be detected within hours of myocardial infarction and persist for several days, making it an essential tool in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndromes, including myocardial infarction. Troponin T is considered one of the gold standard biomarkers for detecting early injury to the cardiac muscle.
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