A nurse is preparing a client for discharge home after an admission for bilateral pulmonary emboli. The client is prescribed warfarin in addition to regular daily medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Advise the client that over-the-counter medications remain safe to consume as needed.
Consult the pharmacist about potential interactions between the client’s regular medications and warfarin.
Recommend the client take warfarin at the same time as other medications.
Tell the client they can continue to drink cranberry juice while taking warfarin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Advising over-the-counter medications as safe is incorrect, as many, like NSAIDs, increase warfarin’s bleeding risk by inhibiting platelets or affecting liver metabolism. Warfarin’s narrow therapeutic index requires careful management to prevent hemorrhage, making broad safety claims dangerous without specific evaluation.
Choice B reason: Consulting the pharmacist identifies interactions with warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist metabolized by CYP450 enzymes. Many drugs alter warfarin’s efficacy, risking thrombosis or bleeding. Pharmacist expertise ensures safe polypharmacy, maintaining therapeutic INR levels critical for managing pulmonary emboli effectively.
Choice C reason: Recommending warfarin with other medications ignores interaction risks and timing needs. Warfarin’s absorption is unaffected by timing, but CYP450 interactions can alter INR. This advice is irrelevant to safety, missing the need for individualized regimen assessment to prevent complications in anticoagulation therapy.
Choice D reason: Cranberry juice may enhance warfarin’s effect by inhibiting CYP2C9, increasing INR and bleeding risk. Advising its use without monitoring is unsafe, as dietary factors can destabilize anticoagulation, potentially causing hemorrhage in clients with pulmonary emboli, requiring careful dietary guidance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Encouraging ambulation only after 48 hours delays recovery, as early ambulation (within 12-24 hours) promotes circulation, prevents thromboembolism, and aids bowel function post-abdominal surgery. This instruction is incorrect, as it contradicts evidence-based protocols for early mobilization to enhance recovery.
Choice B reason: Instructing clients to avoid coughing is inappropriate, as coughing and deep breathing prevent pulmonary complications like atelectasis post-abdominal surgery. Splinting the incision during coughing reduces discomfort and dehiscence risk, making this instruction incorrect as it increases respiratory complications.
Choice C reason: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or redness, is critical post-abdominal surgery to detect complications early. Infections can delay healing and lead to sepsis. Regular assessment ensures timely intervention, aligning with evidence-based postoperative care, making this the correct information to include.
Choice D reason: Removing surgical dressings within 12 hours is not standard, as dressings typically remain for 24-48 hours or per surgeon orders to protect the wound and reduce infection risk. Premature removal increases contamination risk, making this instruction incorrect for postoperative care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not linked to morphine toxicity. Morphine, an opioid, depresses the central nervous system, reducing reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes suggest neurological or stimulant effects, not opioid overdose, which primarily causes respiratory and consciousness depression in affected clients.
Choice B reason: Fluid retention is not a primary sign of morphine toxicity. Morphine may cause urinary retention via sphincter tone increase, but fluid overload is unrelated. Toxicity manifests as respiratory depression or sedation, driven by mu-opioid receptor overstimulation, not fluid balance alterations.
Choice C reason: Prolonged QT interval is associated with medications like antiarrhythmics, not morphine. Morphine toxicity primarily causes respiratory depression and sedation via central nervous system effects. Cardiac effects are rare, and QT prolongation is not a hallmark of opioid overdose in clinical settings.
Choice D reason: Bradypnea indicates morphine toxicity, as opioids depress the brainstem’s respiratory center via mu-receptor overstimulation. This slows breathing, risking hypoxia and respiratory arrest, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention like naloxone to reverse opioid effects and restore normal respiratory function.
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