A nurse is preparing a client for discharge home after an admission for bilateral pulmonary emboli. The client is prescribed warfarin in addition to regular daily medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Advise the client that over-the-counter medications remain safe to consume as needed.

Consult the pharmacist about potential interactions between the client’s regular medications and warfarin.

Recommend the client take warfarin at the same time as other medications.

Tell the client they can continue to drink cranberry juice while taking warfarin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Advising over-the-counter medications as safe is incorrect, as many, like NSAIDs, increase warfarin’s bleeding risk by inhibiting platelets or affecting liver metabolism. Warfarin’s narrow therapeutic index requires careful management to prevent hemorrhage, making broad safety claims dangerous without specific evaluation.
Choice B reason: Consulting the pharmacist identifies interactions with warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist metabolized by CYP450 enzymes. Many drugs alter warfarin’s efficacy, risking thrombosis or bleeding. Pharmacist expertise ensures safe polypharmacy, maintaining therapeutic INR levels critical for managing pulmonary emboli effectively.
Choice C reason: Recommending warfarin with other medications ignores interaction risks and timing needs. Warfarin’s absorption is unaffected by timing, but CYP450 interactions can alter INR. This advice is irrelevant to safety, missing the need for individualized regimen assessment to prevent complications in anticoagulation therapy.
Choice D reason: Cranberry juice may enhance warfarin’s effect by inhibiting CYP2C9, increasing INR and bleeding risk. Advising its use without monitoring is unsafe, as dietary factors can destabilize anticoagulation, potentially causing hemorrhage in clients with pulmonary emboli, requiring careful dietary guidance.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, alternating hyperventilation and apnea, indicate neurological dysfunction or end-of-life changes in brain tumor patients, not pain. This reflects brainstem involvement, requiring respiratory management rather than analgesics, as it is a physiological response to disease progression in palliative care.
Choice B reason: Mottled skin signals poor perfusion or impending death, common in palliative care as circulation declines. It is not a pain indicator but a sign of systemic shutdown, requiring comfort measures like warmth, not analgesics, which are irrelevant to this physiological change in terminal illness.
Choice C reason: Constricted pupils may reflect opioid effects or neurological changes in brain tumor patients but do not directly indicate pain. They suggest autonomic or brainstem dysfunction, necessitating neurological assessment, not immediate pain medication, in palliative care where comfort is prioritized based on clear pain cues.
Choice D reason: Grimacing indicates pain in palliative care patients with brain tumors, reflecting physical discomfort. As a facial expression of distress, it signals the need for analgesics to improve comfort and quality of life, aligning with palliative goals to manage pain effectively in end-stage disease.

A. A client who has decreased serotonin levels. B. A client who has decreased cortisol levels. C. A client who has elevated dopamine levels. D. A client who has elevated thyroid levels.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.

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A nurse is preparing a client for discharge home after an admission for bilateral pulmonary emboli. The client is prescribed warfarin in addition to regular daily medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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