A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of clients in a nursing home. The nurse is assigned to educate clients about osteoporosis.
A nurse is preparing an in-service for older clients in a nursing home with osteoporosis. Which of the following options is an appropriate medication used to treat and prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis?
Analyze Cues
Acetaminophen
Alendronate
Naloxone
Morphine sulfate
The Correct Answer is B
A. Acetaminophen is an over-the-counter pain reliever commonly used to reduce mild to moderate pain, such as headaches or muscle aches. It does not treat osteoporosis. It may help with pain associated with bone fractures or discomfort from osteoporosis but does not impact bone density or prevent fractures.
B. Alendronate (brand name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used specifically to treat and prevent osteoporosis, particularly in postmenopausal women. It works by inhibiting bone resorption (the process by which bone is broken down and minerals are released into the bloodstream), thereby increasing bone density and reducing the risk of fractures.
C. Naloxone (brand name Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdoses. It has no role in the treatment or prevention of osteoporosis. This medication is used in emergency settings to counteract respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose and should not be used for osteoporosis treatment.
D. Morphine sulfate is a narcotic analgesic used to manage severe pain. While it may be used for pain relief in individuals with osteoporosis who have experienced a fracture or severe pain, it does not treat the underlying condition of osteoporosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Ibuprofen does not inhibit mu receptors. Mu receptors are associated with opioid actions, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
B. While long-term use of ibuprofen may increase the risk of cardiovascular events like myocardial infarction, this is not the primary action of the drug.
C. Ibuprofen does not decrease the risk of stroke. In fact, chronic use of NSAIDs may actually increase the risk of bleeding and stroke.
D. Ibuprofen inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which are involved in the inflammatory process. This inhibition helps reduce pain, inflammation, and fever.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae is an early sign of acetaminophen toxicity. It indicates a potential bleeding disorder due to liver damage, which can occur from prolonged or high-dose use of acetaminophen.
B. Osteoporosis is not a symptom of acetaminophen toxicity.
C. Pneumonia is unrelated to acetaminophen toxicity and is more likely to occur due to infections.
D. Diaphoresis (sweating) is not a primary early symptom of acetaminophen toxicity, although it could occur in later stages of liver failure.
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