A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Subcutaneous (SQ)

Intravenous (IV)

Oral (PO)

Intramuscular (IM)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Acetaminophen is an over-the-counter pain reliever commonly used to reduce mild to moderate pain, such as headaches or muscle aches. It does not treat osteoporosis. It may help with pain associated with bone fractures or discomfort from osteoporosis but does not impact bone density or prevent fractures.
B. Alendronate (brand name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used specifically to treat and prevent osteoporosis, particularly in postmenopausal women. It works by inhibiting bone resorption (the process by which bone is broken down and minerals are released into the bloodstream), thereby increasing bone density and reducing the risk of fractures.
C. Naloxone (brand name Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdoses. It has no role in the treatment or prevention of osteoporosis. This medication is used in emergency settings to counteract respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose and should not be used for osteoporosis treatment.
D. Morphine sulfate is a narcotic analgesic used to manage severe pain. While it may be used for pain relief in individuals with osteoporosis who have experienced a fracture or severe pain, it does not treat the underlying condition of osteoporosis.

A. Morphine Sulfate (Astramorph) B. Naloxone (Narcan C. Butorphanol Stado D. Acetaminophen (scenc)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Morphine is a full agonist on mu receptors and does not act on kappa receptors in the same way.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that blocks both mu and kappa receptors.
C. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that acts as an agonist on kappa receptors and an antagonist on mu receptors. It is used for pain management and has a lower risk of dependence compared to full opioid agonists.
D. Acetaminophen does not act on opioid receptors and is not classified as an opioid.

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A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which of the following medication acts as an antagonist on mu receptors and agonists of kappa receptors?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client has been newly prescribed with morphine sulfate (Astramorph) for severe acute pain after seeing the physician for a follow-up appointment. However, the nurse noted that the client has a history of biliary colic. What is an alternative to morphine sulfate (Astramorph) for this client?

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

A new client has been admitted to the hospital and reported taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) at home. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions is contraindicated for acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

A client has a new prescription for cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex). The nurse tells the client to report which of the following adverse drug reactions?

A nurse is planning care for a client who has completed a detoxification from opioid abuse disorder. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following medications for the treatment of opioid abuse?

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) at regular intervals for mild pain. The nurse should tell the client to report which of the following early manifestations of acetaminophen toxicity?