A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Subcutaneous (SQ)

Intravenous (IV)

Oral (PO)

Intramuscular (IM)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Morphine is contraindicated for clients with a history of biliary colic because it can cause spasm of the bile ducts, worsening the condition.
B. Acetaminophen is an effective pain reliever for mild to moderate pain but does not provide the same level of pain relief as morphine for severe pain.
C. Meperidine (Demerol) is a safer alternative for clients with biliary colic because it has less effect on the sphincter of Oddi, reducing the risk of spasm.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid toxicity, not for pain management.

A. Diarrhea B. Headache C. Nausea D. Chest pressure

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diarrhea is a known side effect of celecoxib but not typically a sign of a serious reaction.
B. Headache is a mild side effect that may occur with celecoxib use but is not a severe adverse reaction.
C. Nausea is a common side effect of many medications, including celecoxib, but is not a critical issue unless severe.
D. Chest pressure could indicate cardiovascular problems, which is a serious adverse effect of celecoxib and other COX-2 inhibitors. Clients should report this immediately, as it may indicate a risk for myocardial infarction or stroke.

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A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been newly prescribed with morphine sulfate (Astramorph) for severe acute pain after seeing the physician for a follow-up appointment. However, the nurse noted that the client has a history of biliary colic. What is an alternative to morphine sulfate (Astramorph) for this client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex). The nurse tells the client to report which of the following adverse drug reactions?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is educating a client about dantrolene (Dantrium). Which of the following statements indicate the appropriate therapeutic use of this medication?

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a medication for a client taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Which of the following statements indicate that the medication is effective for the client?

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking raloxifene (Evista) to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following options DOES NOT indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation on medication classifications. Which of the following medications are considered opioid antagonists? (Select All That Apply.)

A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which of the following symptoms indicate a possible complication of this medication?

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A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Ibuprofen (Motrin) Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is planning care for a client who has completed a detoxification from opioid abuse disorder. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following medications for the treatment of opioid abuse?