A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client for the first time and needs to know about potential food and medication interactions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Ask another nurse if they are aware of potential interactions.
Check the client's medical record for medication and food’interactions.
Consult a drug reference guide for possible interactions.
Have the client take the medication on an empty stomach to avoid interactions.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Ask another nurse if they are aware of potential interactions: Relying solely on another nurse's awareness of potential interactions is’not a comprehensive or reliable approach. Nurses may have varying levels of knowledge about medication interactions, and it's important to consult verified sources ’or accurate information.
B) Check the client's medical record for medication and food’interactions: While the client's medical record may contain information’about their current medications, it may not provide detailed information about potential interactions with specific foods or other medications. Additionally, relying solely on the medical record may not capture recent changes in medication or dietary intake.
C) Consult a drug reference guide for possible interactions: This is the correct action. Drug reference guides provide comprehensive information about medications, including potential interactions with other drugs and food. Nurses can access reliable drug reference guides to ensure they have accurate information before administering medications.
D) Have the client take the medication on an empty stomach to avoid interactions: Instructing the client to take medication on an empty stomach without knowledge of specific interactions could be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Some medications require administration with food to enhance absorption or reduce gastrointestinal side effects. It's essential to consult reliable sources ’o determine the appropriate administration instructions for each medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Black stools: While black stools can be a potential side effect of gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not commonly associated with high-dose metoclopramide. This side effect is more commonly seen with medications such as aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is not the most pertinent adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
B) Dry cough: Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of metoclopramide. Cough is more commonly associated with medications such as ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
C) Oral candidiasis: While oral candidiasis (oral thrush) can occur as a side effect of some medications, it is not commonly associated with metoclopramide. Oral candidiasis is more frequently seen with corticosteroids or antibiotics. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
D) Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a serious adverse effect associated with prolonged use of edicaopramide, especially at high doses. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, or other parts of the body. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, such as repetitive facial grimacing or tongue protrusion, is crucial when administering high-dose metoclopramide to prevent this potentially irreversible condition. Therefore, this is the correct adverse effect to monitor for in clients receiving high-dose metoclopramide.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) WBC count: Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells (WBCs), particularly neutrophils, in individuals with neutropenia. Therefore, monitoring the WBC count is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of filgrastim therapy. An increase in WBC count indicates a response to treatment, helping to prevent or manage neutropenic complications such as infections.
B) INR: The international normalized ratio (INR) is a laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly warfarin (Coumadin). It measures the clotting ability of the blood and is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Therefore, monitoring the INR is not appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment.
C) BUN: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a laboratory test used to assess kidney function and hydration status. It measures the concentration of urea nitrogen in the blood and is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Monitoring BUN levels may be indicated for assessing renal function in certain clinical contexts but is not specific to evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment.
D) Potassium level: Monitoring potassium levels is important for assessing electrolyte balance and kidney function but is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Potassium levels may be affected by various factors, including medications, diet, and renal function. However, they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in stimulating WBC production.
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