A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 320 mg PO every four hours as needed for pain. The amount available from the pharmacy is acetaminophen liquid 160 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["10"]

Step 1: Identify the required dose and concentration.
Required dose = 320 mg
Concentration = 160 mg per 5 mL
Result at step 1 = 320 mg ÷ (160 mg ÷ 5 mL)

Step 2: Calculate the volume in milliliters.
First, determine the milligrams per mL:
160 mg ÷ 5 mL = 32 mg/mL
Result at step 2a = 32 mg/mL
Now, calculate the volume:
320 mg ÷ 32 mg/mL = 10 mL
Result at step 2b = 10 mL

Step 3: Round to the nearest whole number.
10 mL is already a whole number.
Result at step 3 = 10 mL

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Less assertiveness does not address anger’s neurobiology. Anger involves amygdala-driven norepinephrine and glutamate surges, and reducing assertiveness may suppress healthy expression, not resolve underlying neural hyperactivity, making this statement inaccurate for anger management.

Choice B reason: Suppressing anger is not positive, as it increases amygdala-driven stress and cortisol, potentially worsening emotional dysregulation. Healthy anger expression engages prefrontal cortex modulation, and suppression can exacerbate neural imbalances, making this statement false.

Choice C reason: Anger is a normal emotion, driven by amygdala activation and norepinephrine release. When channeled constructively, it engages prefrontal cortex regulation, facilitating conflict resolution by addressing underlying issues, making this a true and therapeutic statement about anger’s role.

Choice D reason: Punching a wall is destructive, escalating amygdala-driven aggression and norepinephrine surges without resolving conflict. It risks reinforcing maladaptive neural pathways, increasing impulsivity, and does not engage prefrontal cortex for healthy anger management, making this false.

A. Haloperidol (Haldol). B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril). C. Valproate (Depakote). D. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, blocks dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway, rapidly reducing agitation and psychosis-driven aggression in schizophrenia. This addresses the acute delusional behavior and amygdala hyperactivity, making it the preferred choice for immediate control.

Choice B reason: Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, reduces anxiety via histamine and mild anticholinergic effects but lacks antipsychotic properties. It cannot address dopamine-driven delusions or aggression in schizophrenia, making it ineffective for controlling acute psychotic agitation.

Choice C reason: Valproate stabilizes mood in bipolar disorder via GABA enhancement but is not indicated for acute psychotic aggression. Schizophrenia’s dopamine excess requires rapid receptor blockade, which valproate cannot provide, making it unsuitable for this scenario.

Choice D reason: Lithium stabilizes mood in bipolar disorder by modulating sodium channels and inositol, not acute psychosis. Schizophrenia’s mesolimbic dopamine hyperactivity requires antipsychotic intervention, making lithium ineffective for controlling delusional aggression in this acute situation.

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A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 320 mg PO every four hours as needed for pain. The amount available from the pharmacy is acetaminophen liquid 160 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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