A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol IV to a client. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an expected outcome of this medication?
Decreased thyroxine levels.
Correction of atrial flutter.
Reduced intracranial pressure.
Increased hemoglobin levels.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to manage blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes but does not specifically slow the progression of nephropathy.
Choice B rationale
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that helps control blood sugar levels but does not have a direct effect on slowing nephropathy progression.
Choice C rationale
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension but does not specifically target nephropathy progression.
Choice D rationale
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that helps manage hypertension and has been shown to slow the progression of nephropathy in patients with type 2 diabetes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure it coats the ulcer effectively.
Choice B rationale
There is no need to reduce dietary fiber while taking sucralfate. Fiber intake does not interfere with the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Antacids should not be taken within 30 minutes before or after taking sucralfate, as they can interfere with its action.
Choice D rationale
Increasing fluid intake is recommended while taking sucralfate to help prevent constipation, a common side effect of the medication.
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