A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the risk factors for pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following should the nurse include? (Select all that apply).
Age over 35 years
First pregnancy
Obesity
Diabetes mellitus
Multiple gestation
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
The correct answer is choices B, C, D, and E. These are all risk factors for pre-eclampsia according to various sources.
Choice A is wrong because age over 35 years is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia by itself, although it may be associated with other conditions that increase the risk, such as chronic hypertension or diabetes.
Pre-eclampsia is a complication of pregnancy that involves high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and organ damage. It can affect both the mother and the fetus and can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia (seizures), placental abruption, and stillbirth. It is more common in first pregnancies, especially with a new partner, because of the immune response to the foreign fetal antigens. Obesity, diabetes mellitus, and multiple gestation are also risk factors because they increase the metabolic and vascular demands on the placenta and the mother.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy are:
• Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mmHg
• Proteinuria: less than 300 mg/24 hours or less than 30 mg/dL on a random urine sample
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate therapy is used to prevent seizures in women with preeclampsia, a complication of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and organ dysfunction.Seizures are a sign of eclampsia, a severe form of preeclampsia that can be life-threatening.
Therefore, if the therapy is successful, the woman should not have any seizures.
Choice B.Absence of proteinuria is wrong because proteinuria, or excess protein in urine, is a possible sign of preeclampsia, not eclampsia.
Proteinuria may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.
Choice C.Absence of edema is wrong because edema, or swelling, is a common symptom of pregnancy and may not be related to preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Edema may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.
Choice D.Absence of headache is wrong because headache is a symptom of preeclampsia, not eclampsia.
Headache may not disappear even after magnesium sulfate therapy.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 140/90 mm Hg and for protein in urine are below 300 mg per 24 hours.
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