A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will eat a snack just before going to bed."

"I will sleep with the head of the bed elevated."

"The types of foods I eat do not affect this condition."

"I will eat bigger meals, that way I don't have frequent episodes."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Eating a snack just before going to bed is incorrect because it can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Lying down shortly after eating increases the likelihood of acid reflux, as gravity no longer helps keep stomach contents in the stomach.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated helps reduce GERD symptoms by utilizing gravity to prevent stomach acids from flowing back into the esophagus. This position aids in minimizing nighttime reflux and discomfort.

Choice C reason: Stating that the types of foods eaten do not affect GERD is incorrect because certain foods can trigger or worsen symptoms. Clients with GERD are typically advised to avoid foods that are spicy, acidic, or high in fat to manage their condition better.

Choice D reason: Eating bigger meals is counterproductive in managing GERD. Larger meals increase stomach pressure and can lead to more frequent reflux episodes. Smaller, more frequent meals are recommended to help control symptoms.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis and is not relevant to the administration of morphine. It does not act as an antidote for opioid overdose.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including morphine. It is essential to have naloxone available in case the client experiences respiratory depression or other severe opioid side effects.

Choice C reason: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant. It has no role in the management of opioid overdose and is not necessary to have available when administering morphine.

Choice D reason: Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose. While useful in specific cases, it does not counteract the effects of opioids like morphine and is therefore not the appropriate medication to have on hand in this scenario.

A. Lowest abuse potential B. Moderate abuse potential C. Mild abuse potential D. Highest abuse potential

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Schedule I drugs are not classified as having the lowest abuse potential. These drugs are considered to have the highest potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States.

Choice B reason:

Moderate abuse potential applies to Schedule III drugs, not Schedule I. Schedule I substances are recognized for their high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use.

Choice C reason:

Mild abuse potential is characteristic of Schedule IV or V drugs, which are considered to have lower risks of dependence compared to Schedule I substances.

Choice D reason:

Schedule I drugs, such as heroin and LSD, are deemed to have the highest abuse potential and no accepted medical use in the U.S., making them highly regulated and illegal in most contexts.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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