A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has tuberculosis and is taking rifampin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Jaundice is a harmless adverse effect of this medication.
I shouldn't wear my soft contact lenses because they will become discolored.
The best time to take this medication is when my stomach is full.
It is okay to drink alcohol while I am on this medication as long as it is in moderation.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Jaundice is a serious indicator of hepatotoxicity, a known and potentially severe adverse effect of rifampin. It signifies liver dysfunction and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, stating that jaundice is harmless demonstrates a critical misunderstanding of the medication's potential risks and the need for prompt reporting to the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Rifampin is known to cause discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva, due to its reddish-orange pigment. This discoloration can permanently stain soft contact lenses. Therefore, a client's statement about not wearing soft contact lenses indicates an understanding of this specific and important adverse effect.
Choice C rationale
Rifampin absorption is reduced when taken with food. To maximize its bioavailability and effectiveness, rifampin should be taken on an empty stomach, typically one hour before or two hours after a meal. Taking it when the stomach is full would decrease its therapeutic efficacy, indicating a misunderstanding of the teaching.
Choice D rationale
Rifampin is metabolized by the liver, and alcohol consumption also places a significant metabolic burden on the liver. Concurrent use of rifampin and alcohol significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity, which can lead to severe liver damage. Therefore, drinking alcohol while on rifampin is strongly contraindicated and shows a lack of understanding. .
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium levels within the normal range (1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L) are important for overall electrolyte balance, but sodium polystyrene sulfonate specifically targets potassium. While hyperkalemia can sometimes be associated with other electrolyte imbalances, a normal magnesium level does not directly indicate a therapeutic response to sodium polystyrene sulfonate, as its primary action is not on magnesium.
Choice B rationale
Calcium levels within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dL) are essential for various physiological functions. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate primarily exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions, not calcium. Therefore, a normal calcium level does not reflect a therapeutic response to the medication, which is specifically aimed at reducing elevated potassium levels.
Choice C rationale
Sodium levels within the normal range (136 to 145 mEq/L) are crucial for fluid balance and neurological function. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate exchanges sodium for potassium, meaning it increases the body's sodium load. While a normal sodium level is desirable, it does not directly indicate the therapeutic efficacy of the medication in reducing potassium.
Choice D rationale
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L) indicates a therapeutic response. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an ion-exchange resin used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging potassium ions for sodium ions in the gastrointestinal tract. A potassium level returning to within the normal range, from a previously elevated state, signifies that the medication has effectively lowered the excess potassium.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory and central nervous system depression. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine, not an opioid. Therefore, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the adverse effects of midazolam. Its mechanism of action specifically targets opioid receptors.
Choice B rationale
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It specifically binds to benzodiazepine receptors, competitively inhibiting the effects of benzodiazepines like midazolam. In cases of benzodiazepine overdose or excessive sedation leading to adverse effects such as hypotension, flumazenil can rapidly reverse these central nervous system depressant effects.
Choice C rationale
Moxifloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. It is used to treat bacterial infections and has no pharmacological action that would counteract the effects of benzodiazepines or specifically address drug-induced hypotension during a procedure like a colonoscopy. Administering an antibiotic in this scenario would be inappropriate.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid used primarily for its effects on electrolyte and fluid balance, often in conditions like Addison's disease or orthostatic hypotension. It would not be an appropriate choice for rapidly reversing acute drug-induced hypotension caused by midazolam during a medical procedure. Its action is not immediate.
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