A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who is 24 hr postpartum and has reported urge incontinence.
Which of the following should the nurse reinforce as a first referral to treat the client?
Referral to pelvic floor physical therapy.
Referral to a urologist.
Referral to sports medicine.
Referral to a primary care physician.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Pelvic floor physical therapy helps strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can significantly reduce or eliminate urge incontinence in postpartum clients. These specialized exercises target muscle control and bladder function, providing a non-invasive first-line treatment.
Choice B rationale
A urologist specializes in the urinary tract system, but referral is usually not the first step. Initial non-invasive interventions, such as pelvic floor therapy, are typically recommended before consulting a specialist.
Choice C rationale
Sports medicine focuses on physical fitness and the treatment of sports-related injuries. It is not the appropriate referral for treating postpartum urge incontinence, which specifically involves the pelvic floor muscles and urinary system.
Choice D rationale
A primary care physician can provide general medical care, but specialized interventions like pelvic floor therapy are more effective for addressing the specific issue of urge incontinence postpartum.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
One parity indicates one delivery at a viable gestational age, which is not accurate for this client.
Choice B rationale
Two parity is correct as the client has delivered twins (considered one parity) at 36 weeks, which counts as one delivery at a viable gestational age.
Choice C rationale
Three parity is incorrect because the previous pregnancies did not result in three separate viable deliveries.
Choice D rationale
Four parity is incorrect as the client’s history includes one viable delivery (twins) and does not account for four separate viable births. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Continuous fetal monitoring is expected because it provides ongoing information about the fetal heart rate and contractions, which is crucial after an eclamptic seizure.
Choice B rationale
Antenatal steroid administration is not the immediate intervention post-seizure but is given to enhance fetal lung maturity if preterm delivery is anticipated.
Choice C rationale
Expectant management protocol is incorrect because active management is required in the case of an eclamptic seizure to stabilize the mother and fetus.
Choice D rationale
Umbilical artery blood flow analysis might be part of a comprehensive evaluation but is not the immediate priority post-eclampsia seizure.
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