A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client following arthroscopic (joint) surgery.
To prevent postoperative complications which of the following actions should be reinforced during the teaching of Continuous passive motion (CPM)?
Let the patient lift the machine onto the bed.
Tell the patient CPM will not hurt at all.
The patient really doesn't need to do CPM exercises.
Administer an opioid analgesic to the client 30 min prior to initiating CPM exercises.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Allowing the patient to lift the CPM machine onto the bed is not a safe practice. Arthroscopic surgery may result in limited mobility and discomfort for the patient. Lifting heavy equipment could potentially strain the surgical site or lead to injury.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the patient that CPM will not hurt at all is not accurate. While CPM is a passive motion technique aimed at preventing joint stiffness, some discomfort or mild pain may be experienced, especially during the initial sessions. Managing the patient's pain is essential to ensure compliance with the CPM exercises.
Choice C rationale:
Suggesting that the patient does not need to do CPM exercises is incorrect. CPM exercises are often prescribed after joint surgery to prevent joint stiffness, improve circulation, and aid in recovery. Discouraging the patient from participating in these exercises would be detrimental to their postoperative outcome.
Choice D rationale:
Administering an opioid analgesic to the client 30 minutes before initiating CPM exercises is the correct choice. CPM exercises can be uncomfortable for some patients, especially in the initial stages, and providing adequate pain relief before starting the exercises promotes patient comfort and compliance. It helps ensure that the patient can perform the exercises effectively without undue pain, reducing the risk of complications and promoting a successful recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
The correct answers are C and D.
Choice A reason: Preferred bath time is a personal preference and comfort-related aspect of patient care. While it is important for overall patient satisfaction and care planning, it is not critical information for a change-of-shift report following a total knee arthroscopy. The focus in such reports is typically on clinical status, immediate care needs, and potential complications.
Choice B reason: Admission vital signs are the initial measurements taken upon the patient’s admission to the healthcare facility. These are baseline values that can be referenced later to note any significant changes. However, for a change-of-shift report, especially 2 days postoperative, the most current vital signs and any changes since surgery are more pertinent than the admission values.
Choice C reason: The time of the last pain medication is crucial information for a change-of-shift report. Pain management is a key aspect of postoperative care, particularly after procedures like total knee arthroscopy. Knowing when the last dose was administered helps the incoming nurse manage the patient’s pain effectively and anticipate when the next dose is due.
Choice D reason: The steps required for dressing change are essential to include in the change-of-shift report. Proper wound care and dressing changes are vital to prevent infection and ensure proper healing after surgery. Detailed instructions on the dressing change process help maintain consistency in care between different caregivers.
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