A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac monitor for dysrhythmias. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication for the placement of a permanent pacemaker?
Vasovagal bradycardia without syncope
Complete AV block with rates slower than 40/min
Sinus tachycardia with rates faster than 80/min
Asymptomatic second-degree AV block
The Correct Answer is B
A complete AV block (also called third-degree AV block) is a type of heart block in which there is no electrical communication between the atria and ventricles. This means that the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other, resulting in a slow and irregular pulse. A complete AV block can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, shortness of breath, and heart failure.
A permanent pacemaker is a device that sends electrical impulses to the heart to regulate its rhythm and prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate). A permanent pacemaker is indicated for clients with complete AV block and rates slower than 40/min or symptomatic bradycardia.
The other options are not indications for a permanent pacemaker. Vasovagal bradycardia is a temporary drop in heart rate and blood pressure caused by a stimulus that triggers the vagus nerve, such as pain, stress, or straining.
It usually resolves on its own or with simple measures, such as lying down or elevating the legs. Sinus tachycardia is a normal increase in heart rate in response to physical or emotional stress, such as exercise, fever, or anxiety. It usually does not require treatment unless it is caused by an underlying condition or causes symptoms.
Asymptomatic second-degree AV block is a type of heart block in which some of the electrical impulses from the atria are blocked from reaching the ventricles. It may not cause any symptoms or affect the overall heart rate. It may be benign or transient, or it may progress to a more serious type of heart block. It may require monitoring or medication, but not a permanent pacemaker unless it causes symptomatic bradycardia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Palpating the dorsalis pedis pulse is an essential action to monitor for adequate circulation and perfusion in an extremity with an external fixator, which is a device that stabilizes and aligns fractured bones with metal pins and rods outside of the skin. The other options are incorrect because they could cause complications such as edema, infection, or malalignment.
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